ALTIUS - Unit Test # 4 (OLD NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Among the red, green, and brown algae that inhabit the sea, brown algae are likely to be found in the deepest water.
Reason (R):	In addition to chlorophyll, red algae also have an accessory pigment that is fucoxanthin.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

2.

An example of primary succession would be:

1.	Soil formation in the crater of an extinct volcano
2.	Growth of a pine forest after a fire
3.	Restoration of grass on a former agricultural field
4.	Starfish colonizing on a coral reef

3. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Most ecosystems would vanish if the sun were not continuously providing energy to Earth.
Reason (R):	Both energy and matter are transformed in ecosystems through photosynthesis and feeding relationships.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R)are False.

4.

The rate at which energy is converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic autotrophs to organic substances is called as:
1. biomass
2. transpiration
3. net primary productivity
4. gross primary productivity

5.

Wastewater treatment generates a large quantity of sludge, which can be treated by:

1.	anaerobic digesters	2.	floc
3.	chemicals	4.	oxidation pond

6.

Choose the incorrect statement:

1.	The Montreal Protocol is associated with the control of the emission of ozone-depleting substances
2.	Methane and carbon dioxide are greenhouse gases
3.	Dobson units are used to measure the oxygen content of air
4.	Use of incinerators is crucial to the disposal of hospital wastes

7.

Endonuclease protects the bacterium from viral infection because:

1.	They would prevent the virus from binding to the outside of the bacterial cell.
2.	They would destroy the viral coat, so it cannot inject its genetic material.
3.	They would cut the viral DNA into small pieces.
4.	All of the above.

8.

The ecological niche is:

1.	The surface area of the ocean
2.	An ecologically adapted zone
3.	The physical position and functional role of a species within the community
4.	Formed of all plants and animals living at the bottom of a lake

9.

Restriction endonucleases present in bacterial cells provide an advantage to the cell because these enzymes:

1.	can identify the mutated sequences on the chromosomal DNA and help in their repair
2.	selectively bind to particular nucleotide sequences that may appear in viral DNA preventing its replication in the cell
3.	can cut the plasmid DNA of the bacterial cell that allows them to recombine foreign DNA into their plasmid DNA
4.	help the bacterium take up foreign DNA from their environment and combine it into their genome

10.

In RNAi, genes are silenced using:

1.	ss DNA	2.	ds DNA
3.	ds RNA	4.	ss RNA

11.

Which of the following forests is known as the ‘lungs of the planet Earth’?
1. Taiga forest
2. Tundra forest
3. Amazon rainforests
4. Rainforests of North East India

12.

The full potential of penicillin as an antibiotic was established by:

1.	Alexander Fleming	2.	Florey and Chain
3.	Avery and McCarty	4.	Hershey and Chase

13.

If the threat of extinction is high, the preferred strategy for the conservation of this threatened species would be:

1.	In-situ conservation	2.	Ex-situ conservation
3.	Either of the two	4.	Neither of the two

14. The mean annual precipitation is the most variable in:

1.	Tropical forest	2.	Desert
3.	Grassland	4.	Arctic tundra

15.

Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles to reduce the emission of harmful gases. Catalytic converters change unburnt hydrocarbons into:
1. Carbon dioxide and water
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Methane
4. Carbon dioxide and methane

16.

The major source of noise pollution in the world is:
1. Office equipment
2. Transport system
3. Sugar, textile, and paper industries
4. Oil refineries and thermal power plants

17.

Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are varieties of:

1.	wheat	2.	rice
3.	millet	4.	tobacco

18.

Which of the following ‘flows’ through an ecosystem and does not ‘cycle’?

1.	Water	2.	Nitrogen
3.	Energy	4.	Carbon

19.

The Earth Summit was held in Rio do Janeiro in:

1.	1987	2.	1990
3.	1992	4.	2002

20.

The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted because:

1.	the biomass of fish far exceeds that of phytoplankton at any given time
2.	the major primary production to the sea is actually contributed by the terrestrial ecosystems
3.	the flow of energy level does not follow the laws of thermodynamics in the sea
4.	It is not true. The pyramid of biomass can never be inverted in any ecosystem

21.

The chemical energy that is not converted to new biomass in the process of energy transfer between trophic levels in an ecosystem is finally:
1. removed in the feces
2. recycled by decomposers
3. used by heterotrophs to thermoregulate.
4. dissipated into space as heat

22.

EcoSan is a practical, hygienic, efficient, and cost-effective solution for the disposal of:
1. Radioactive wastes
2. Solid wastes
3. Plastic wastes
4. Human wastes

23.

The steps included in a cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction are:

1.	initiation, elongation, and termination
2.	transfection, transformation, and transduction
3.	denaturation, annealing, and extension
4.	restriction, electrophoresis, and elution

24. Consider the two statements:

I:	Agar Gel electrophoresis is useful in analysis of DNA.
II:	DNA is generally positively charged due to its nitrogenous bases so an electrical field forces it to move toward a negative pole.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3.	I is correct but II is incorrect
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

25.

The three-mile island is famous as:

1.	it hosted the Kyoto protocol
2.	it was the site of a large oil spill
3.	it was a site of a nuclear accident
4.	it hosted the Earth summit

26.

Why is carbon dioxide regarded as a greenhouse gas?

1.	It is involved in photosynthesis
2.	It absorbs infrared radiation
3.	It emits visible radiation
4.	It absorbs and emits ultraviolet radiation

27.

The selection of self-pollinated crops ultimately aims at:

1.	selecting the most desirable pure line
2.	maintaining maximum heterozygosity
3.	removing all true breeding varieties from the germplasm
4.	converting pure lines into panmicts

28.

The environmental pollutants that will have the most negative effects would be:
1. human organic wastes
2. wastes from feedlots
3. an excess of natural nutrients
4. non-biodegradable chemicals

29. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	In almost all cases, habitat fragmentation leads to species loss.
Reason (R):	Human alteration of habitat is the single greatest threat to diversity throughout the biosphere.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

30.

Deforestation has affected the carbon cycle primarily by:

1.	decreasing the amount of carbon available for photosynthesis
2.	increasing the rate of release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
3.	preventing the loss of fixed carbon to sediments
4.	reducing the decomposition of organic matter by microbes

31.

Which among the following is a cloning vector?

1.	EcoRI	2.	BamHI
3.	pUC18	4.	Sal I

32.

Which award is given to individuals or communities from rural areas that have shown extraordinary courage and dedication in protecting wildlife?
1. Venu Menon Animal Allies Award
2. Amrita Devi Bishnoi Award
3. David Shepherd Wildlife Award
4. The Pledge Award

33.

Identify incorrectly matched pair:

	Crop	Variety
1.	Brassica	Pusa Swarnim
2.	Okra	Pusa Gaurav
3.	Chilli	Pusa Sadabahar
4.	Cauliflower	Pusa Shubhra

34. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other halogenated ozone-depleting substances (ODS) are mainly responsible for man-made chemical ozone depletion.
Reason (R):	CFCs can travel to the stratosphere without being destroyed in the troposphere due to their low reactivity.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

35.

Resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew in mung bean:

1.	was transferred from a wild variety
2.	was the result of inter-specific hybridization
3.	was induced by mutation
4.	was the result of somaclonal variation

Biology I - Section B

36.

Using recombinant DNA technology, genes from a donor cell can be implanted into a bacterium for DNA replication and protein synthesis. The kind of cell(s) that can be used as gene donors in this technology is/are:
1. Bacteria only
2. Either yeast or bacteria only
3. Eukaryotic cells only
4. Any kind of cell

37.

Bioprocessing engineering deals with:

1.	the search for plant and animal species from which medicinal drugs and other commercially valuable compounds can be obtained.
2.	developing methods and software tools for understanding biological data.
3.	production of active pharmaceutical substances in genetically modified organisms (GMOs).
4.	maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical engineering processes.

38.

Methanogenic bacteria are not found in:
1. rumen of cattle
2. gobar gas plant
3. bottom of water-logged paddy fields
4. activated sludge

39.

Mycorrhiza does not help the host plant in:

1.	Enhancing its phosphorus uptake capacity
2.	Increasing its tolerance to drought
3.	Enhancing its resistance to root pathogens
4.	Increasing its resistance to insects

40.

El Nino, characterized by the warming of surface temperatures in the Pacific Ocean, is associated with:

1.	Lower than normal monsoons in India
2.	Higher than normal monsoons in India
3.	Near normal monsoons in India
4.	No effect on monsoons in India

41.

What is true about the population growth curves shown in the figure given below:

I:	Curve a is seen when resources are not limiting
II:	Curve b is seen when resources are limiting
III:	[K-N]/K is the carrying capacity

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

42.

The most common method for creating genetic variations in a crop genome is:
1. recombinant procedures
2. domestication
3. hybridization
4. induced mutations

43.

A key feature of insertional mutagenesis for the identification of plasmids containing recombinant DNA is:

1.	the production of nutritional auxotrophs.
2.	the DNA sequencing of recombinant plasmids.
3.	the production of restriction endonuclease maps of recombinant plasmids.
4.	the disruption of a gene on the plasmid by the inserted recombinant DNA.

44.

According to the recommendations of the National Forest Policy of 1988, what percentage of the area is recommended as forest cover for hills?

1.	19	2.	33
3.	50	4.	67

45.

Which of the following is not a consequence of global warming?

1.	a rise in sea levels
2.	a change in precipitation patterns
3.	an equatorial shift of many species
4.	eruption of plant diseases, pests, and weeds

46. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	For competition to occur between species, resources must be limited.
Reason (R):	Totally unrelated species cannot compete for the same resources.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and reason are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A)and (R) are False.

47.

Which of the following should be chosen for the best yield if one were to produce a recombinant protein in large amounts?

1.	Laboratory flask of the largest capacity
2.	A stirred-tank bioreactor without in-lets and out-lets
3.	A continuous culture system
4.	Any of the above

48.

Early seral communities in secondary succession are less productive than in later stages because:

1.	early seral communities are prone to invasion and disturbance by other species of plants
2.	low biomass means less productivity
3.	weedy early seral communities make habitat inhospitable for more productive species
4.	early seral stages are more sensitive to nutrient deficiencies

49.

The relation between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa on alogarithmic scale is a:

1.	rectangular hyperbola	2.	straight line
3.	sigmoid curve	4.	circular circle

50.

High species richness in the tropics can be explained by the following except:

1.	High productivity allows for high structural complexity and more niches
2.	Greater vertical stratification allows for more niches
3.	Abundant soil nutrients promote long food chains
4.	A period without significant change reduces the extinction rate

Biology II - Section A

51.

A group of animals related by descent and similar in most characteristics like general appearance, features, size, configuration, etc., are said to belong to a:

1.	Variety	2.	Species
3.	Strain	4.	Breed

52.

A single-stranded DNA or RNA fragment used in genetic engineering to search for a particular gene or other DNA sequence is called as a :

1.	probe	2.	vector
3.	restriction sequence	4.	retrovirus

53.

The most common source of HIV infection is:
1. Blood transfusion
2. Intravenous drug addiction
3. Homosexual contact
4. Heterosexual promiscuity

54.

ELISA is based on the principle of:

1.	Complementary base pairing between nucleic acid strands
2.	Antigen-antibody interaction
3.	Movement of different proteins under an electric field
4.	Amplification of DNA in a sample

55.

Antisense technology:

1.	selectively blocks the expression of a gene.
2.	combines genetic material from different species.
3.	combines organelles and cells.
4.	alters or transfers cells.

56.

Which fungus is an important source for the production of citric acid?
1. Aspergillus niger
2. Aspergillus flavus
3. Trichoderma polysporum
4. Trichoderma harzianum

57.

Mammals:

1.	breed many times during their lifetime and produce a small number of large-sized offspring
2.	breed many times during their lifetime and produce a large number of small-sized offspring
3.	breed many times during their lifetime and produce a small number of small-sized offspring
4.	breed only once during their lifetime and produce a small number of large-sized offspring

58.

Consider the two statements:

I:	Colostrum adds to the immunity of, especially, pre-term infants.
II:	Colostrum delivers its nutrients in a very concentrated low-volume form.

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. Both I and II are incorrect

59.

Avoiding short-duration external environmental stress by escaping in time includes all the following except:
1. Diapause as in zooplankton
2. Hibernation as in bears
3. Migration as in the Siberian crane
4. Aestivation as in some snails and fishes

60.

Cancer cells:

1.	exhibit contact inhibition
2.	show metastasis
3.	undergo controlled and regulated cell division
4.	do not need any nutrients

61.

Whale barnacles attach typically to baleen whales without harming them. This relationship is called as:

1.	vitalism	2.	mutualism
3.	parasitism	4.	commensalism

62.

How can a healthy man get filariasis?
1. Through droplet infection from an affected person
2. Through contaminated water or food
3. Through sexual contact with an infected person
4. Through the bite by the female mosquito vector

63.

Why do cancer cells kill?

1.	They press upon the vital organs of the body
2.	They deprive the normal cells of their nutrition
3.	They release large amounts of toxins into the body
4.	They lead to a heightened immune response against themselves

64.

Ex-situ conservation will be most applicable to the animals placed in which of the following IUCN categories?
1. Vulnerable
2. Endangered
3. Threatened
4. Extinct in wild/Critically endangered

65.

Interferons have been produced by rDNA technology. Interferons help to prevent and treat:

1.	bacterial infections	2.	viral infections
3.	rickettsial infections	4.	protozoal infections

66.

Which of the following viruses is not transferred through the semen of an infected male?
1. Hepatitis-B virus
2. Human immunodeficiency virus
3. Chikungunya virus
4. Ebola virus

67.

A limitation associated with traditional hybridization procedures used in plant and animal breeding overcome by genetic engineering is:

1.	Traditional hybridization is difficult to practice
2.	Traditional hybridization is labor and cost-intensive
3.	Traditional hybridization may lead to the inclusion and multiplication of non-desirable genes
4.	The progeny generated by traditional hybridization have lower reproductive potential

68.

Lichens are association of:

1.	Bacteria and fungus	2.	Alga and bacterium
3.	Fungus and alga	4.	Fungus and virus

69.

Inbreeding is carried out in animal husbandry because it:

1.	increases vigour	2.	improves the breed
3.	increases heterozygosity	4.	increases homozygosity

70.

Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they are:
1. Undergoing rapid division
2. Different in structure
3. Non-dividing
4. Starved of mutation

71.

Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva, and tears destroys:

1.	certain fungi	2.	certain types of bacteria
3.	all viruses	4.	most virus-infected cells

72.

What exotic introduction is threatening indigenous catfishes in our rivers?

1.	Carassius auratus	2.	Carcinus maenas
3.	Centaurea solstitialis	4.	Clarias gariepinus

73.

The SARS CoV 2 is not transmitted by:
1. Droplet from cough and sneeze
2. Contact with a contaminated surface
3. Mosquito bite
4. Droplet from speaking

74.

The ‘eyes’ [round holes] seen in Swiss cheese are due to:

1.	bubbles of carbon dioxide that are produced by bacteria in the cheese.
2.	the metabolisation of citrate by citrate-positive strains of lactococci.
3.	fermentation of lactose into lactic acid by bacteria.
4.	added rennet that causes precipitation of milk protein casein.

75.

Cyclosporin A is used in people who have received an organ graft because it primarily lowers the activity of:
1. Macrophages
2. B lymphocytes
3. T lymphocytes
4. Bone marrow

76.

The class of immunoglobulins that attach to mast cells and basophils to initiate an inflammatory response are:

1.	IgA	2.	IgM
3.	IgG	4.	IgE

77.

A gene of interest is inserted into Lac z gene in a plasmid. The plasmid also carries the gene for ampicillin resistance. Recombinant transformants can be identified as:
1. A clone that did not grow on the ampicillin plates
2. A white colony on the ampicillin plates
3. A blue colony on the ampicillin plates
4. A red colony on the ampicillin plates

78.

What is common to Lantana, Eichhornia, and African catfish?

1.	All are endangered species in India.
2.	All are keystone species.
3.	All are mammals found in India.
4.	All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous species of India.

79.

Which of the following is not an ectoparasite?
1. Lice on humans
2. Copepods on marine fishes
3. Mistletoe on other plants
4. Female Anopheles on humans

80. Consider the following two statements:

I:	Plasmid can be used as a vector in recombinant DNA technology experiments.
II:	Plasmid is an extrachromosomal, circular, double-stranded DNA found in some bacteria.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3.	I is correct but II is incorrect
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

81.

Widal test is a clinical test used in the diagnosis of:
1. Syphilis
2. Acariasis
3. Diphtheria
4. Typhoid

82.

You won’t see cattle and goats browsing on Calotropis plants because the plant:
1. has a large number of thorns
2. does not bear any leaves
3. produces cardiac glycosides
4. produces strychnine

83.

The scientists who cloned DNA from the Salmonella typhimurium streptomycin resistance plasmid into the Escherichia coli plasmid, observed tolerance to streptomycin among the transformants and thus laying the foundations of genetic engineering were:

1.	Cohen and Boyer	2.	Millstein and Kohler
3.	Bolivar and Rodriguez	4.	Fire and Mello

84.

Immunodeficiency symptoms, particularly opportunistic infections in AIDS patients become prominent as the HIV starts selectively infecting and destroying:

1.	T Helper cells	2.	T Cytotoxic cells
3.	T suppressor cells	4.	B cells

85.

Restriction enzymes do not act on the DNA of the Host cell in which they are produced because:

1.	Host DNA is packed into chromosomes
2.	Restriction enzymes are ineffective on host DNA
3.	Host DNA does not have the restriction site for the Restriction enzymes
4.	Restriction site of host DNA is methylated

Biology II - Section B

86.

A top predator contributes to the maintenance of species diversity among its animal prey. What term would describe this top predator?

1.	keystone species	2.	tertiary consumer
3.	dominant species	4.	critical link species

87.

If a population of 50 Paramoecium present in a pool increases to 150 after an hour, what would be the percent growth or birth rate per individual per hour?

1.	100	2.	200
3.	50	4.	150

88.

Which of the following fungi is an important biocontrol agent for fungal diseases?
1. Trichoderma polysporum
2. Trichoderma viridae
3. Trichoderma longibrachiatum
4. Trichoderma harzianum

89.

Symptoms of allergy in a person can be reduced with the help of the following except:

1.	Adrenaline	2.	Steroids
3.	Anti-histamines	4.	Antibiotics

90.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a cancerous cell?

1.	It is capable of unlimited cell division
2.	It becomes independent from normal cellular controls that limit growth and division
3.	It becomes invasive by spreading to other tissues
4.	It becomes highly differentiated

91.

The abuse of which of the following is least likely to cause hallucinations?

1.	Cocaine	2.	Atropine
3.	Datura	4.	Benzodiazepine

92.

Which of the following would be true for innate immunity?

1.	each time the body is exposed to a substance, the response is the same.
2.	specificity and memory are involved.
3.	the body may become immune to a disease.
4.	antibodies may be produced.

93.

Which of the following disease is not correctly matched with the pathogen causing it?

1.	Dengue	Aedes aegypti
2.	Ringworm	Trichophyton
3.	Pneumonia	Haemophilus influenzae
4.	Diphtheria	Corynebacterium

94.

The type of resistance that is acquired as a result of developing and recovering from a disease is:
1. naturally acquired active immunity
2. artificially acquired active immunity
3. artificially acquired passive immunity
4. naturally acquired passive immunity

95.

What type of immunity is induced by the hepatitis B vaccine?
1. naturally acquired active immunity.
2. naturally acquired passive immunity.
3. artificially acquired active immunity.
4. artificially acquired passive immunity.

96.

A source of a ‘clot buster’ enzyme used in patients of CAD is the bacterium:
1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Streptomyces griseus
3. Pseudomonas putida
4. Streptococcus pyogenes

97.

Which of the following is not an advantage of artificial insemination in cattle?

1.	Increased efficiency of bull usage
2.	Increased genetic variability in the population
3.	Increased potential for genetic selection
4.	Reduced disease transmission

98.

Humans have acquired an immune system that produces antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Still innate immune system is present at the time of birth because it:

1.	is very specific and uses different macrophages
2.	produces memory cells for mounting a fast secondary response
3.	has natural killer cells that can phagocytose and destroy microbes
4.	provides passive immunity

99.

A good candidate for a possible gene therapy treatment will include all the following diseases except:

1.	SCID ADA deficiency	2.	Sickle cell anemia
3.	Down’s syndrome	4.	Cystic fibrosis

100.

A country is experiencing a mass exodus of its population due to an ongoing civil war. The growth rate of its population in the present scenario will primarily be decided by:

1.	Natality	2.	Mortality
3.	Emigration	4.	Immigration

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