JIPMER MBBS 2013

A car of mass 1000 kg moves on a circular track with a radius of 40 m. If the coefficient of friction is 1.28, the maximum velocity with which the car can be moved is:
1. $22.4~\text{m/s}$
2. $112~\text{m/s}$
3. $\frac{0.64\times40}{1000\times100}~\text{m/s}$
4. $1000~\text{m/s}$

The escape velocity for the Earth is $11.2$ km/s. The mass of another planet is $100$ times the mass of the Earth and its radius is $4$ times the radius of the earth. The escape velocity for the planet is:
1. $280$ km/s
2. $56.0$ km/s
3. $112$ km/s
4. $48$ km/s

Light travels faster in the air than in glass. This is in accordance with:

1.	the wave theory of light.
2.	the corpuscular theory of light.
3.	neither (1) nor (2)
4.	both (1) and (2)

The speed of airflow on the upper and lower surfaces of a wing of an aeroplane is $v_1$and $v_2$respectively. If $A$ is the cross-section area of the wing and $\rho$ is the density of air, then the upward lift is:
1. $\frac12\rho A(v_2-v_2)$
2. $\frac12\rho A(v_1+v_2)$
3. $\frac12\rho A(v_1~^2-v_2~^2)$
4. $\frac12\rho Av_1~^2+v_2~^2$

A body is thrown with a velocity of $9.8$ m/s making an angle of $30^\circ$ with the horizontal. It will hit the ground after a time:
1. $1.5$ s
2. $1$ s
3. $3$ s
4. $2$ s

A radioactive element ${ }_{90} \mathrm{X}^{238}$ decays into ${ }_{83} Y^{222}$. The number of $\beta$-particles emitted are:
1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 6

The minimum excitation potential of Bohr's first orbit in a hydrogen atom is:
1. $3.6$ V
2. $10.2$ V
3. $13.6$ V
4. $3.4$ V

A gas expands $0.25~\mathrm{m^3}$ at constant pressure $10^3~\mathrm{N/m^2}$, the work done is:
1. $250~\mathrm{N}$
2. $250~\mathrm{W}$
3. $250~\mathrm{J}$
4. $2.5~\mathrm{erg}$

The work done in increasing the size of a soap film for $10~ \mathrm{cm} \times 6~ \mathrm{m}$ to $10~ \mathrm{cm} \times 11~ \mathrm{m}$ is $3\times 10^{-4}$ J. The surface tension of the film is:
1. $1.0 \times10^{-2}$ N/m
2. $6.0 \times 10^{-2}$ N/m
3. $3.0 \times 10^{-2}$ N/m
4. $1.5 \times 10^{-2}$ N/m

10.

A parallel plate condenser is filled with two dielectrics as shown in the figure. The area of each plate is $A~\text m^2$and the separation is $d$ meter. The dielectric constants are $K_1$ and $K_2$ respectively. Its capacitance in farad will be:

1. $\frac{2\varepsilon_{_0}A}{d}\Big(\frac{K_1+K_2}{K_1K_2}\Big)$
2. $\frac{2\varepsilon_{_0}A}{d}\Big(\frac{K_1K_2}{K_1+K_2}\Big)$
3. $\frac{\varepsilon_{_0}A}{d}\Big(\frac{K_1+K_2}{2K_1K_2}\Big)$
4. $\frac{\varepsilon_{_0}AK_1K_2}{2(d_2K_1+d_1K_2)}$

11.

A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On the other side of the lens, at what distance from the lens can a convex mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm be placed in order to have an upright image of the object coincident with it?
1. 30 cm
2. 60 cm
3. 50 cm
4. 12 cm

12.

A battery of emf $10~\text V$ and internal resistance of $0.5~\Omega$ is connected across a variable resistance $R.$ The maximum value of $R$ is given by:
1. $0.5~\Omega$
2. $1.000~\Omega$
3. $2.0 ~\Omega$
4. $0.25 ~\Omega$

13.

For a gas $\frac{R}{C_v}=0.67.$ This gas is made up of molecules which are:

1.	monoatomic
2.	polyatomic
3.	mixture of diatomic and polyatomic molecules
4.	diatomic

14.

A point source of light is placed $4~\mathrm{m}$ below the surface of the water of refractive index $\frac{5}{3}.$ The minimum diameter of a disc that should be placed over the source on the surface of the water to cut off all light coming out of the water is:
1. $6~\mathrm{m}$
2. $3~\mathrm{m}$
3. $4~\mathrm{ m}$
4. $2\mathrm{~m}$

15.

A moving body of mass $m$ and velocity $3$ km/h collides with a rest body of mass $3$ m and stick to it. Now the combined mass starts to move. What will be the combined velocity?
1. $4$ km/h
2. $1$ km/h
3. $2$ km/h
4. $3$ km/h

16.

A transverse wave is represented by the equation; $y=y_0\sin\frac{2\lambda}{\lambda}(vt-k).$
For what value of $\lambda$ is the particle velocity equal to two times the wave velocity?
1. $\lambda=\pi y_0$
2. $\lambda=\frac{\pi y_0}{2}$
3. $\lambda=\frac{\pi y_0}{3}$
4. $\lambda=2\pi y_0$

17.

Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is $13.6$ eV. Hydrogen atoms on the ground state are rarely excited by monochromatic radiation of photon $12.1$ eV. The special line emitted by a hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s theory will be:
1. one
2. two
3. three
4. four

18.

The internal resistance of a primary cell is 4 $\Omega.$ It generates a current of 0.2 A in an external resistance of 21 $\Omega.$ The rate at which chemical energy to consumed in providing current is:
1. 1 J/s
2. 5 J/s
3. 0.42 J/s
4. 0.8 J/s

19.

The binding energy per nucleon is maximum in the case of:
1. $^{235}_{92}U$
2. $^{141}_{56}U$
3. $^{56}_{26}Fe$
4. $^{2}_{4}He$

20.

Two rigid bodies $A$ and $B$ rotate with rotational kinetic-energies $E_A$ and $E_B$ respectively. The moments of inertia of $A$ and $B$ about the axis of rotation are $I_A$ and $I_B$ respectively. If $I_A=\frac{I_B}{4}$ and $E_A=100=E_0,$ the ratio of angular momentum $(L_A)$ of $A$ to the angular momentum $(L_B)$ of $B$ is:
1. $25$
2. $5/4$
3. $5$
4. $1/4$

21.

The working principle of a ballpoint pen is:
1. Bernoulli's theorem
2. Surface tension
3. Gravity
4. Viscosity

22.

Progressive waves are represented by the equation;
$y_1=a\sin(\omega t-x)$ and $y_2=b\cos(\omega t-x)$
The phase difference between waves is:
1. $0^\circ$

2. $45^\circ$

3. $90^\circ$

4. $180^\circ$

23.

Two simple pendulums of length $0.5$ m and $20$ m respectively are given small linear displacement in one direction at the same time. They will again be in the phase when the pendulum of shorter length has completed $n$ oscillations, where $n$ is:
1. $1$
2. $3$
3. $2$
4. $5$

24.

A balloon contains $500$ m³ of helium at $27~^\circ \mathrm{C}$ and $1$ atmosphere pressure. The volume of the helium at $-3~^\circ \mathrm{C}$ temperature and $0.5$ atmosphere pressure will be:
1. $1000$ m³
2. $900$ m³
3. $700$ m³
4. $500$ m³

25.

$220 ~\mathrm{V}$, $50~\mathrm{Hz}$, AC source is connected to an inductance of $0.2~\mathrm{H}$ and a resistance of $20$ $\Omega$ in series. What is the current in the circuit?
1. $3.33~\mathrm{A}$
2. $33.3~\mathrm{A}$
3. $5\mathrm{A}$
4. $10\mathrm{~A}$

26.

In $0.2$ s, the current in a coil increases from $2.0$ A to $3.0$ A. If the inductance of a coil is $60$ mH, then the induced current in external resistance of 3 $\Omega$ will be:
1. $1$ A
2. $0.5$ A
3. $0.2$ A
4. $0.1$ A

27.

Two coherent light beams of intensities $I$ and $4I$ are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are:
1. $5I$ and$I$
2. $5I$ and $3I$
3. $9I$ and $I$
4. $9I$ and $3I$

28.

A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter should have:

1.	low resistance in series with its coil
2.	low resistance in parallel with its coil
3.	high resistance in series with its coil
4.	high resistance in parallel with its coil

29.

The equivalent resistance across $A$ and $B$ is:

1. $2~\Omega$
2. $3~\Omega$
3. $4~\Omega$
4. $5~\Omega$

30.

A black body has a wavelength of $\lambda$ at temperature $2000$ K. Its corresponding wavelength at temperature $3000$ K will be:
1. $\frac{2\lambda}{3}$
2. $\frac{3\lambda}{2}$
3. $\frac{4\lambda}{9}$
4. $\frac{9\lambda}{4}$

31.

At room temperature, copper has free electron density of $8.4 \times 10^{28}$ m^-3. The electron drift velocity in a copper conductor of a cross-sectional area of $10^{-6}$ m² and carrying a current of $5.4$ A, will be:
1. $4$ ms^-1
2. $0.4$ ms^-1
3. $4$ cms^-1
4. $0.4$ mms^-1

32.

A uniform wire of resistance $R$ and length $L$ is cut into four equal parts, each of length $L/4$ which is then connected in parallel combination. The effective resistance of the combination will be:
1. $R$
2. $4R$
3. $\frac R4$
4. $\frac{R}{16}$

33.

The half-life of a radioisotope is $4$ h. If the initial mass of the isotope was $200$ g, then the mass remaining after $24$ h will be:
1. $1.042$ g
2. $2.084$ g
3. $3.125$ g
4. $4.167$ g

34.

Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

1. OR
2. AND
3. NAND
4. None of these

35.

The work function for metals $A,B$ and $C$ are respectively $1.22~\mathrm{eV}$, $2.0~\mathrm{eV}$ and $5~\mathrm{eV}$. According to Einstein’s equation, the metals that will emit photoelectrons for radiation of wavelength $410~\mathrm{\mathring A}$ is/are:

1.	none
2.	A only
3.	A and B only
4.	A and B only

36.

Two boys are standing at the ends $A$ and $B$ of a ground, where $AB = a.$ The boy at $B$ starts running in a direction perpendicular to $AB$ with velocity $v_1.$ The boy $A$ starts running simultaneously with velocity $v$ and catches the other boy in a time $t,$ where $t$ is:
1. $\frac{a}{\sqrt{v^2+v_1~^2}}$
2. $\sqrt{\frac{a^2}{v^2-v_1~^2}}$
3. $\frac{a}{(v-v_1)}$
4. $\frac{a}{(v+v_1)}$

37.

A $5$ amp fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of $1$ W in circuit. The resistance of the fuse wire is:
1. $0.2$ Ω
2. $5$ Ω
3. $0.4$ Ω
4. $0.04$ Ω

38.

A force $F$ is given $F=at+bt^2,$where $t$ is time. What are the dimensions of $a$ and $b$?
1. $[MLT^{-1}]$ and $[MLT^{0}]$
2. $[MLT^{-3}]$ and $[ML^2T^{4}]$
3. $[MLT^{-4}]$ and $[MLT^{1}]$
4. $[MLT^{-3}]$ and $[MLT^{-4}]$

39.

Two equal negative charges $-q$ are fixed at the point $(0,a)$ and $(0,-a)$ on the y-axis. A Positive charge $Q$ is released from rest at the point $(2a,0)$ on the x-axis. The charge will:

1.	execute SHM about the origin.
2.	move to the origin and remain at rest.
3.	move to infinity.
4.	execute oscillatory but not SHM.

40.

An ice cube of density $900$ kg/m is floating in water of density $1000$ kg/m. The percentage of the volume of ice-cube outside the water is:
1. $20$%
2. $35$%
3. $10$%
4. $25$%

41.

The above reaction is known as:
1. Aromatization
2. Pyrolysis
3. Isomerization
4. Oxidation

42.

Number of Hydrogen-bonded water molecules associated in CuSO₄.5H₂O is:
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. All the five

43.

Which of the following species do not show disproportionation on reaction?
ClO^-, ClO₂ ^-, ClO₃ and ClO₄
1. ClO⁴
2. ClO³
3. ClO^-
4. None of these

44.

Which one of the following acts as a nucleophile?
1.

45.

During the estimation of nitrogen in the organic compound by Kjeldahl's method, the ammonia evolved from 0.5 g of the compound in Kjeldahl's estimation of nitrogen, neutralised 10 mL of 1M H₂SO₄. Find out the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.
1. 14%
2. 28%
3. 56%
4. 68%

46.

Which of the following compounds have highest melting point?

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. I and II
4. II and III

47.

Identify the major product ‘X’ obtained in the following reaction.
2, 3-dimethyl butan-2-ol

X
1.

48.

Addition of water to alkynes occurs in an acidic medium and in the presence of H+ ions as a catalyst. Which of the following products will be formed on addition of water to but-1-yne under these conditions?
1. CH₃CH₂CH₂CHO
2. CH₃CH₂COCH₃
3. CH₃CH₂COOH + CO₂
4. CH₃COOH + HCHO

49.

The correct order of increasing acidic strength is:
1. Phenol < ethanol < chloroacetic acid < acetic acid
2. Ethanol < phenol < chloroacetic acid < acetic acid
3. Ethanol < phenol < acetic acid < chloroacetic acid
4. chloroacetic acid < acetic acid < phenol < ethanol

50.

KF has ccp structure. How many F^- ions and octahedral voids are there in this unit cell respectively?
1. 4 and 4
2. 4 and 8
3. 8 and 4
4. 6 and 6

51.

The osmotic pressure of blood is 8.21atm at 37 °C. How much glucose would be used for an injection that is at the same osmotic pressure as blood?
1. 22.17 gL^-1
2. 58.14 gL^-1
3. 61.26 gL^-1
4. 75.43 gL^-1

52.

At equilibrium, the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in a volatile liquid solvent is:
1. less than the rate of crystallization
2. greater than the rate of crystallization
3. Equal to the rate of crystallization
4. Zero

53.

A chelating agent has two or more than two donor atoms to bind a single metal ion. Which of the following is not a chelating agent?
1. Thiosulphato
2. Glycinato
3. Oxalato
4. Ethane-1, 2-diamine

54.

On addition of a small amount of KMn0₄ to cone. H₂SO₄, a green oily compound is obtained which is highly explosive in nature. Identify the compound from the following.
1. Mn₂O₇
2. MnO₂
3. MnSO₄
4. Mn₂O₃

55.

The magnetic nature of elements depends on the presence of unpaired electrons Identify the configuration of the transition element, which shows the highest magnetic moment.
1. 3d⁷
2. 3d⁵
3. 3d⁸
4. 3d²

56.

Which of the following elements can be involved in P

-d

bonding?
1. Carbon
2. Nitrogen
3. Phosphorus
4. Boron

57.

0n addition of conc. H₂SO₄ to chloride salt, colourless fumes are evolved but in the case of iodide salt, violet fumes come out. This is because:
1. H₂S0₄ reduces HI to I₂
2. HI is of violet color
3. HI gets oxidized to I₂
4. HI changes to HI0₃

58.

Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should have the highest bond dissociation enthalpy?
1. HF
2. HCl
3. HBr
4. HI

59.

Which of the following statement is not correct about an inert electrode in a cell?

1.	It does not participate in the cell reaction.
2.	It provides a surface either for oxidation or for the reduction reaction.
3.	It provides a surface for the conduction of electrons.
4.	It provides a surface for redox reaction.

60.

Which of the following statement is correct?

1.	E_cell and ∆_rG of cell reaction both are extensive properties.
2.	E_cell and ∆_rG of cell reaction both are intensive properties.
3.	E_cell in the intensive property while ∆_rG of cell
4.	E_cell is an extensive property while ∆_rG of cell reaction is an intensive property.

61.

Which of the following curves is in accordance with Freundlich adsorption isotherm?
1.

62.

A number of elements available in earth’s crust but most abundant elements are:
1. Al and Fe
2. Al and Cu
3. Fe and Cu
4. Cu and Ag

63.

The element which forms oxides in all oxidation states +1 to +5 is:
1. Nitrogen
2. Phosphorus
3. Arsenic
4. Antimony

64.

Which of the following is the increasing order of enthalpy of vaporization?
1. NH₃, PH₃, AsH₃
2. AsH₃, PH₃, NH₃
3. NH₃, AsH₃, PH₃
4. PH₃, AsH₃, NH₃

65.

When Br₂ is treated with aqueous solutions of NaF, NaCl, NaI separately:
1. F₂, Cl₂ and I₂ are liberated
2. Only F₂ and Cl₂ are liberated
3. Only I₂ is liberated
4. Only Cl₂ is liberated

66.

In the presence of a catalyst, the heat evolved or absorbed during the reaction:
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains unchanged
4. May increase or decrease

67.

The rate of a gaseous reaction is given by the expression k [A] [B]. If the volume of the reaction vessel is suddenly reduced to

of the initial volume, the reaction rate relating to the original rate will be:
1.

\frac{1}{10}

\frac{1}{8}

3. 8
4. 16

68.

Which of the following is 3° amine?
1. 1-methylcyclohexylamine
2. Triethylamine
3. Tart-butylamine
4. N-methyl aniline

69.

Which of the following enhances lathering property of soap?
1. Sodium carbonate
2. Sodium rosinate
3. Sodium stearate
4. Trisodium phosphate

70.

The deficiency of vitamin C causes:
1. Scurvy
2. Rickets
3. Pyorrhea
4. Pernicious anaemia

71.

Excess fluoride (over 10 ppm) in drinking water can cause:
1. Harmful effect on bones and teeth
2. Methemoglobinemia
3. Kidney damage
4. Laxative effect

72.

For the process to occur under adiabatic conditions, the correct condition is:
1.

∆ T

= 0
2.

∆ P

= 0
3. Q = 0
4. W = 0

73.

For this reaction is

. At 298K,

for conversion of oxygen to ozone will be:
1. 100 kJ mol^-1
2. 150 kJ mol^-1
3. 163 kJmol^-1
4. 2303 kJ mol^-1

74.

Which one of the following statements about C₂ molecule is wrong?

1.	The bond order of C₂ is 2.
2.	In vapor phase, C₂ molecule is diamagnetic
3.	Double bond in the C₂ molecule consists of both π bonds because of the presence of 4e^-s in two molecular orbitals.
4.	Double bond in the C₂ molecule consists of one σ bond and on π bond.

75.

The type of hybridization in SF₆ molecule is:
1. sp³d
2. dsp³
3. sp³d²
4. d²sp³

76.

Among LiCl, BeCl₂, BCl₃ and CCl₄, the covalent bond character follows the order.

1. $LiCl < {BeCl}_{2} < {BCl}_{3} < {CCl}_{4}$
2. ${BCl}_{3} < {CCl}_{4} < {BeCl}_{2} < LiCl$
3. ${BeCl}_{2} < LiCl < {CCl}_{4} < {BCl}_{3}$
4. ${CCl}_{4} < {BCl}_{3} < {BeCl}_{2} < LiCl$

77.

Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom determined by the following?
1. 4/+2
2. 2n²
3. 4/-2
4. 2/+1

78.

The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas per molecule in SI units at 25 °C will be:
1. 6.17 x 10^-21 JK^-1

2. 6.17 x 10^-21 kJK^-1

3. 6.17 x 10²⁰ JK^-1

4. 7.16×10^-20 JK^-1

79.

pK_a of acetic acid and pK_b of ammonium hydroxide are 4.76 and 4.75 respectively. Calculate the pH of the ammonium acetate solution.
1. 6.02
2. 7.005
3. 8
4. 5.602

80.

The value of Kc for the reaction,
2A

B+C is 2 x 10^-3. At a given time, if the composition of the reaction mixture is [A] = [B] = [C] = 3 x 10^-3 M. Which is true?
1. The reaction will proceed in the forward direction
2. The reaction will proceed in the backward direction
3. The reaction will proceed in any direction
4. None of the above

81.

Pellagra is caused by deficiency of vitamin:
1.

B_{1}

B_{2}

B_{6}

B_{3}

82.

Notochord originates from:
1. Mesoderm
2. Ectoderm
3. Endoderm
4. None of these

83.

Parthenogenesis is a term of:
1. Budding
2. Asexual reproduction
3. Sexual reproduction
4. Regeneration

84.

Bartholin's gland is found in:
1. Penis
2. stomach
3. Liver
4. vagina

85.

Which one of the following statements best characterizes the testis?

1.	These seminiferous epithelium contains only proliferative cells
2.	Functional compartmentalization of the seminiferous epithelium depends on tight junctions
3.	The interstitial tissue contains few capillaries
4.	The seminiferous epithelium contains numerous capillaries

86.

Drugs that cause malformation in developing embryos during pregnancy are called:
1. Teratogen
2. Nicotine
3. Tranquilizers
4. Alcoholic beverages

87.

Which set is similar?
1. Corpus luteum - Graafian follicles
2. Sebum -Sweat
3. Vitamin-87 - Niacin
4. Bundle of His - Pacemaker

88.

Which one out of (a) to (d) given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino acid?
1.

89.

Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases/stages of the cell cycle. Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/ phase in the cell cycle?

1. C-karyokinesis
2. D-synthetic phase
3. A-cytokinesis
4. B-prophase

90.

Which one of the following structural formulas of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function?

1. B-uracil - a component of DNA
2. A-triglyceride- a major source of energy
3. A-lecithin - a component of cell membrane
4. B-adenine- a nucleotide that makes up nucleic

91.

Which is substitution of mitochondria in E coli?
1. Golgi body
2. Mesosome
3. Ribosome
4. Glyoxysomes

92.

Animal cells differ from plant cell in possessing:
1. Vacuoles
2. Centrosomes
3. Plastids
4. Mitochondria

93.

Which of the following organelles does not contain RNA?
1. Plasmalemma
2. Ribosome
3. Chromosome
4. Nucleolus

94.

Dutrochet has given the concept about the cell in:
1. 1834
2. 1814
3. 1822
4. 1824

95.

The scientific name of gharial is:
1. Naja bungarus
2. Gaviais gangeticus
3. Hemidactylus flavivridis
4. None of the above

96.

Which of the given option is correct regarding the statements?

Statement I:	Cephalochordata bears notochord all along the body throughout life.
Statements II:	Urochordate bears vertebral column only in tail region throughout the life.

1. I wrong, II correct
2. I correct, II wrong
3. Both I and II are wrong
4. Both are correct

97.

In which of the following haemocyanin pigment is found?
1. Lower invertebrates
2. Echinodermata
3. Insecta
4. Annelida

98.

Which of the following cells in earthworms play a role similar to the liver in vertebrates?
1. Amoebocytes
2. Mucocytes
3. Chloragogen cells
4. epidermal cells

99.

Match the following and select the correct option.

1. A-3 B-5 C-2 D-1 E-4
2. A-3 B-1 C-5 D-2 E-4
3. A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 E-5
4. A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 E-5

100.

Chondrichthyes is characterised by:
1. placoid scale
2. placoid scale and ventral mouth
3. Ventral mouth
4. ctenoid scale and ventral

101.

Ichthyology is the study of:
1. aves
2. Amphibians
3. Reptiles
4. Fishes

102.

What will happen if ligaments are torn?'
1. Bone will become unfixed
2. Bone will become fixed
3. Bone less movable at joint and pain
4. Bone will move freely at the joint and with no pain

103.

Achondroplasia is a disease related with the defect in the formation of:
1. Membrane
2. Mucosa
3. Bone
4. Cartilage

104.

Yellow bone marrow is found especially in the medullary cavity:
1. Long bones
2. Spongy bones
3. Short bones
4. All of the above

105.

Match the items of column I with column II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.

1. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
2. A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
3. A-2 B-4 C-1 D-2
4. A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1

106.

Space in the jaw bone unoccupied by teeth is called:
1. Dentine
2. Diastema
3. Enamel
4. Crown

107.

Identify the correct set, which shows the name of the enzyme from where it is secreted and the substrate upon which it acts.
1. Ptyalin- Intestine- Maltose
2. Ptylin- Pancreas- Lipid
3. Pepsin- Stomach wall- Caesin
4. Chymotrypsin- Salivary gland- Lactose

108.

Endemic goiter is a state of:
1. Normal thyroid function
2. Moderate thyroid function
3. Increased thyroid function
4. Decrease thyroid function

109.

Hormone responsible for the secretion of milk after parturition is:
1. ACTA
2. LH
3. ICSH
4. Prolactin

110.

What is another name for the windpipe?
1. Trachea
2. Larynx
3. Oesophagus
4. Lungs

111.

Soil salinity is measured by:
1. Parameter
2. Calorimeter
3. Conductivity meter
4. Potometer

112.

Predation and parasitism are which type of interactions?
1. (+, +)
2. (+, O)
3. (-, -)
4. (+, -)

113.

The ultimate source of energy for living beings is:
1. Sunlight
2. ATP
3. Fats
4. Carbohydrates

114.

Which of the following species are restricted to an area?
1. Sympatric species
2. Sibling species
3. Allopatric species
4. Endemic species

115.

Select the incorrect statement.

1.	Stellar's sea cow and passenger pigeon got extinct due to over-exploitation by men
2.	The Mitotic Convention on Biological Diversity was held in 1992
3.	Species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles
4.	Lantana and Eichhornia are invasive weed species in India

116.

The effect of cigarette smoking and radon in combination on lungs is:
1. Fatal
2. Synergistic
3. Mutualistic
4. Antagonistic

117.

The thermostable enzymes, Taq and Pfu, Isolated from thermophilic bacteria are:
1. RNA polymerases
2. DNA ligases
3. DNA polymerases
4. Restriction endonucleases

118.

Biolistic technique is used in:
1. Gene transfer process
2. Tissue culture process
3. Hybridization process
4. Germplasm conservation process

119.

The largest gene in a man is:
1. Insulin gene
2. Tumour suppressor gene
3. Beta globin gene of haemoglobin
4. Dystrophin

120.

Herbicide-resistant gene in a plant is:
1. Mt
2. Gt
3. Ct
4. Bt

121.

In photosynthesis carbon dioxide is converted to carbohydrates. It is a ......... process.
1. Reductive
2. Oxidative
3. Catabolic and exergonic
4. None of the above

122.

Which of the following is not an auxin?

1. IAA
2. IBA
3. Zeatin
4. NAA

123.

Which of the following properties is shown by cytokines?

1. Delay leaf senescence
2. Cause leaf abscission
3. Promote seed dormancy
4. Promote stomatal closing

124.

Which of the following characteristics is exhibited by C₄ plants?

I.	Kranz anatomy.
II.	The first product of photosynthesis is oxaloacetic acid.
III.	Both PEP carboxylase and ribulosebiphosphate carboxylase act as carboxylating enzymes.

The correct option is:

1. I and III, but not II
2. I and II, but not III
3. II and III, but not I
4. All are correct

125.

Which of the following plants keeps its stomata open during the night and closed during the day?

1. Orchid
2. Cactus
3. Tea
4. Wheat

126.

Genetic dwarfism can be overcome by:

1. Gibberellin
2. ethylene
3. auxin
4. ABA

127.

Hormone inducing fruit ripening is:

1. cytokinin
2. Ethylene
3. abscissic acid
4. gibberellic acid

128.

The year 1900 AD is highly significant for geneticists due to:

1. discovery of genes
2. Principle of linkage
3. Chromosome theory of heredity
4. Rediscovery of Mendelism

129.

F1-generation means:

1. First filial generation
2. First seed generation
3. First flowering generation
4. First fertile generation

130.

Skin colour is controlled by:

1. Single gene
2. 3 pairs of genes
3. 2 pairs of genes
4. 2 pairs of genes with an intragene

131.

Which of the following cross will produce terminal flower in garden pea?

1. AA x Aa
2. AA xaa
3. AaxAa
4. Aa x AA

132.

Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers?

1. Funaria and Ficus
2. Fern and Funaria
3. Funaria and Pinus
4. Ficus and Chlamydomonas

133.

Which one of the following is heterosporous?

1. Equisetum
2. Oryopteris
3. Salvinia
4. Adiantum

134.

Cycas revoluta is popularly known as:

1. Sago palm
2. Royal palm
3. Salvinia
4. Sea palm

135.

Match the following with the correct combination.

1. A-3 B-1 C-5 D-4 E-2
2. A-2 B-3 C-1 D-5 E-4
3. A-4 B-3 C-1 D-5 E-2
4. A-4 B-5 C-1 D-2 E-3

136.

Bacterial endotoxin is:

1.	A toxic protein that stays inside the bacterial cell
2.	A toxic protein that is excreted into the medium
3.	Lipopolysaccharide located on the surface of the bacteria
4.	None of the above

137.

Endosperm of gymnosperms is:

1. Haploid
2. tetraploid
3. Diploid
4. None of these

138.

First vascular plant is:

1. thallophyta
2. pteridophyta
3. bryophyta
4. spermatophyta

139.

Diatomaceous earth is obtained from:

1. Bacillarophyceae
2. Xanthophyceae
3. Rhodophyceae
4. Chrysophyceae

140.

Which of the following is an epidermal cell containing chloroplast?

1. Stomata
2. Hydathode
3. Guard cell
4. None of these

141.

The structures present in the roots to absorb water and minerals is:

1. Epidermal extensions
2. Hypodermis
3. Endodermis
4. Epidermal appendages

142.

Lady finger belongs to the family:

1. Malvaceae
2. Cucurbitaceae
3. Brassicaceae
4. Liliaceae

143.

The interxylary phloem is found in the stem of:

1. Cucurbita
2. Salvia
3. Calotropis
4. None of these

144.

Wound healing is due to:

1. Ventral meristem
2. secondary meristem
3. Primary meristem
4. All of these

145.

Angular collenchyma occurs in:

1. Salvia
2. Helianthus
3. Althaea
4. Cucurbita

146.

In pteridophytes, phloem is without:

1. bast fibers
2. sieve tubes
3. companion cells
4. sieve cells

147.

Match the following entities of column I with their respective orders of column II and choose the correct combination from the option.

1. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
2. A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3
3. A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
4. A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3

148.

Agar-agar is produced by:

1. Fungi
2. Algae
3. Bacteria
4. Blue-green algae

149.

In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association is as per which of the following pair:

1. A-G, C-T
2. A-T, G-C
3. A-C, G-T, A-C, E-T
4. All of these

150.

A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides present in the segment is:

1. 60
2. 240
3. 120
4. 480

151.

Lactose is composed of:

1. Glucose+ glucose
2. Glucose+ galactose
3. Glucose+ fructose
4. Fructose+ Galactose

152.

Meiosis is best observed in dividing:

1. Cell of lateral meristem
2. Cells of apical meristem
3. Microsporocytes
4. Microspores and anther wall

153.

Study the following statements and select the correct option.

I.	Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains.
II.	Hilum represents the junction between the ovule and the funicle.
III.	In aquatic plants such as water hyacinths and water lily, pollination is by water.
IV.	The primary endosperm nucleus is triploid.

1. I, II, and IV are correct, but Ill is incorrect
2. I and II are correct, but Ill and IV are incorrect
3. I and IV are correct, but II and Ill are incorrect
4. I, Ill and IV are correct, but I is incorrect

154.

Masses of pollen grains, i.e., pollinia is found in:

1. Gramineae
2. Solanaceae
3. Orchidaceae
4. Malvaceae

155.

Morphine, which is used as an analgesic is obtained from:

1. Taxusbrevifolia
2. Berberisnilghiriensis
3.Cinchona officinalis
4. Papaversomniferum

156.

Pebrine is a disease of:

1. Fish
2. Honey bee
3. Silkworm
4. Lac insect

157.

Factor governing the earth's surface is:

1. Topographic
2. Edaphic
3. Temperature
4. Biotic

158.

The direction of energy flow is:

1.	Producers → Herbivores → Decomposers → Omnivores
2.	Producers → Carnivores → Herbivores → Decomposers
3.	Decomposers → Carnivores → Herbivores → Producers
4.	Producers → Herbivores → Carnivores → Decomposers

159.

If the Bengal tiger becomes extinct:

1.	Hyenas and wolves will become scarce.
2.	Its gene pool will be lost forever
3.	The wild areas will be safe for man and domestic
4.	The population of beautiful animals like deer will get stabilized

160.

Biological treatment of water pollution is done with the help of:

1. Fungi
2. Lichen
3. Phytoplankton’s
4. None of the above

161.

What is another name for the windpipe?
1. Trachea
2. Larynx
3. Oesophagus
4. Lungs

162.

People have little to consider ideas and objectives because:

1.	they consider these ideals meaningless
2.	they do not want to burden themselves with such ideas
3.	they have no inclination for such things
4.	they are excessively engaged in their routine activities

163.

The burden of life's problems' in the fourth sentence refers to:
1. the incessant and feverish activities
2. the burden of family responsibilities
3. the onerous duties of life
4. the sorrows and sufferings

164.

The World Wars II^nd is the price, that man paid due to:
1. the absence of wisdom and sagacity
2. his not caring to consider the life's problems
3. his ignoring the ideals and objectives of life
4. his excessive involvement in feverish activities

165.

According to the writer the adoption of wrong means even for the right end would
1. not let us attain our goal
2. bring us dishonor
3. impede our progress
4. deflect us from the right path

166.

The word 'vitiate' used in the second paragraph means
1. negate
2. debase
3. tarnish
4. destroy

167.

Directions: In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each questions. Choose the correct alternative out of the four. The little girl .......... for the light switch in the dark.
1. groped
2. grappled
3. gripped
4. groveled

168.

Directions: In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each questions. Choose the correct alternative out of the four. The summit meeting provided him the much .......... shot in the arm.
1. required
2. desired
3. needed
4. urgent

169.

Directions: In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each questions. Choose the correct alternative out of the four. We must .......... the tickets for the movie in advance.
1. draw
2. buy
3. remove
4. take

170.

Directions: In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each questions. Choose the correct alternative out of the four. The State Transport Corporation has.......... a loss of Rs. 5 crore this year.
1. obtained
2. derived
3. incurred
4. formulated

171.

Directions: In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each questions. Choose the correct alternative out of the four. One .......... and you know who among them is the culprit.
1. look
2. peep
3. sight
4. gaze

172.

Directions: In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. FILTHY
1. Stainless
2. Shining
3. Sterilized
4. Clean

173.

Directions: In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. CROWDED
1. Deserted
2. Lonely
3. Empty
4. Barren

174.

Directions: In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. VAGUE
1. Known
2. Published
3. Popular
4. Definite

175.

Directions: In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. SUPERVISE
1. Overlook
2. Misdirect
3. Neglect
4. Forget

176.

Directions: In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. MAGNANIMOUS
1. Selfish
2. Naive
3. Generous
4. Small

177.

Ravi has got many friends because he has got much money.
1. Enough money
2. A lot of money
3. Bags of money
4. No improvement

178.

You must try making him to understand.
1. Make him understand
2. To making him understand
3. To make him understand
4. No improvement

179.

He has cooked that meal so often he can do it with his eyes closed.
1. Mind blank
2. Eyes covered
3. Hands full
4. No improvement

180.

Not a word they spoke to the unfortunate wife about it.
1. They had spoken
2. Did they speak
3. They will speak
4. No improvement

181.

There is sufficient fund to meet the requirement of the entire schools in our zone.
1. Schools
2. All the schools
3. All of the schools
4. No improvement

182.

Directions: In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. GAINSAY
1. Advantage
2. Proposal
3. Contradict
4. Suggestion

183.

Directions: In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. PROFOUND
1. Profuse
2. Boundless
3. Deep
4. Fathomless

184.

Directions: In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. FLAK
1. Adventure
2. Advice
3. Criticism
4. Praise

185.

Directions: In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. HOODLUM
1. Pioneer
2. Criminal
3. Devotee
4. Scholar

186.

Directions: In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. SPASMODIC
1. Continuous
2. Gradual
3. Intermittent
4. Spontaneous

187.

(1) In reply to a question

(P) that securing extradition

(Q) operating from the UK soil remained

(R) of anti-India elements

(S) the spokesman said

(6) New Delhi's first priority.
1. PQRS
2. QSPR
3. RQSP
4. SPRQ

188.

(1) The first component is

(P) and vocational training

(Q) so as to enable them

(R) the provision of further technical

(S) to both rural and urban youth

(6) to secure employment in industry and the services sector.
1. PRSQ
2. RPSQ
3. RSQP
4. SRPQ

189.

(1) The move to revert to a six-day week

(P) among the employees

(Q) while the leaders represented to the Chef Minister

(R) that they be taken into confidence

(S) led to an animated decision

(6) before any decision was taken.
1. QPSR
2. RSPQ
3. SPQR
4. SQPR

190.

(1) It was obvious

(P) made by him

(Q) submitted at the meeting

(R) from the comments

(S) on the draft proposals

(6) that he was not satisfied with them
1. PSRQ
2. QRSP
3. RPSQ
4. SQRP

191.

(1) The Minister of state for power

(P) laying emphasis

(Q) in conservation of electricity in industries

(R) has written to his counterparts in State Government

(S) on bringing about improvement

(6) by introduction of energy efficient equipment.
1. QPSR
2. RPSQ
3. SPQR
4. SQPR

192.

We have to keep our fingers crossed till the final result is declared.
1. keep praying
2. feel suspicious
3. wait expectantly
4. feel scared

193.

The members of the group were at odds over the selection procedure.
1. acting foolishly
2. in dispute
3. unanimous
4. behaving childishly

194.

The popularity of the yesteryears' superstar is on the wane.
1. growing more
2. at its peak
3. growing less
4. at rock-bottom

195.

His father advised him to be fair and square in his dealings lest he should fall into trouble.
1. considerate
2. upright
3. careful
4. polite

196.

There is no love lost between the two neighbors.
1. close friendship
2. intense dislike
3. a love-hate relationship
4. cool indifference

197.

Directions: In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. Word for word reproduction.
1. Copying
2. Mugging
3. Verbatim
4. Photostat

198.

Directions: In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. A person who collects coins.
1. Philatelist
2. Numismatist
3. Narcissist
4. Fatalist

199.

Directions: In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. That which is perceptible by touch
1. Tangible
2. Tenacious
3. Contagious
4. Contingent

200.

Directions: In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. One who possesses many talents.
1. Versatile
2. Gifted
3. Exceptional
4. Nubile

201.

Directions: In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. A person who studies the formation of the Earth.
1. Meteorologist
2. Anthropologist
3. Geologist
4. Seismologist

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