Full Syllabus Test # 1 (Final Dash)

Biology I - Section A

1. If one wants to recover many copies of the target DNA, it should be cloned in a vector:

1.	that is a single-stranded DNA molecule
2.	whose origin [ori] supports a high copy number
3.	that carries two selectable markers
4.	whose cloning sites are all clustered at one place

2. The flower cannot be divided into two similar halves by any vertical plane passing through the centre in:

1.	Canna	2.	Pea
3.	Mustard	4.	Datura

3. If a cell had 2N chromosomes and 2C DNA content in G₁ phase, what would be the corresponding values at the end of the S phase?
1. 2N, 2C
2. 4N, 2C
3. 2N, 4C
4. 4N, 4C

4. Which step in the decomposition of detritus is carried out by bacteria and fungi?

1.	fragmentation	2.	leaching
3.	catabolism	4.	mineralisation

5. The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is called:

1.	mutualism	2.	commensalism
3.	competition	4.	amensalism

6. Which of the following polysaccharides does not have glucose as its constituent unit?
1. Inulin
2. Starch
3. Cellulose
4. Glycogen

7. Cells of which of the following wall layer of microsporangium possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus?

1.	epidermis	2.	endothecium
3.	middle layers	4.	tapetum

8. During the formation of the embryo sac in angiosperms, cell walls are laid:

1.	from the first nuclear division
2.	between the 2-nucleate and 4-nucleate stage
3.	before the 8-nucleate stage
4.	after the 8-nucleate stage

9. Match each item in COLUMN I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Element]		Column II [Role in plants]
A	Magnesium	P	Synthesis of auxin
B	Manganese	Q	Ribosome structure
C	Boron	R	Pollen germination
D	Zinc	S	Splitting of water

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	R	P	S
2.	S	R	Q	P
3.	Q	S	R	P
4.	R	S	P	Q

10. The numbers of ATP and NADPH molecules required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin pathway, respectively, are:
1. 9 and 6
2. 18 and 12
3. 6 and 9
4. 12 and 18

11. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	In a plant cell, the concentration of a number of ions is significantly higher in the vacuole than in the cytoplasm.
Reason (R):	The tonoplast facilitates the transport of a number of ions and other materials against concentration gradients into the vacuole.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

12. The most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction in contemporary times is:
1. Habitat loss and fragmentation
2. Over-exploitation
3. Alien species invasion
4. Co-extinction

13. Spraying sugarcane crops with which of the following plant growth regulators increases the stem's length, thus increasing the yield by as much as 20 tonnes per acre?

1.	Auxins	2.	Gibberellins
3.	Cytokinins	4.	ABA

14. A ‘protonema’ stage in the life cycle of a moss is the:

1.	first stage in gametophyte generation
2.	second stage in gametophyte generation
3.	first stage in sporophyte generation
4.	second stage in sporophyte generation

15. Besides starch, pyrenoids in many members of Chlorophyceae, contain:

1.	Double-stranded DNA
2.	A low molecular weight RNA
3.	Protein
4.	Lipids

16. Sex determination is based on the number of sets of chromosomes an individual receives in:

1.	Honeybees	2.	Grasshoppers
3.	Fruit fly	4.	Birds

17. In mung bean, mutations were used to induce resistance to:
I: yellow mosaic virus
II: powdery mildew
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

18. Which means of transport is very important to plants since it is the only means for gaseous movement within the plant body?

1.	Diffusion
2.	Facilitated diffusion
3.	Active transport
4.	Secondary active co-transport

19. The floral diagram describes the members of angiosperms belonging to the family:

1. Brassicaceae
2. Fabaceae
3. Liliaceae
4. Solanaceae

20. Identify the simple tissue of plants shown in the given figure:

1. Parenchyma
2. Collenchyma
3. Sclereids
4. Sclerenchyma fibres

21. Bacteria are grouped under four categories based on their shape. Identify the incorrect match:

1.	Coccus	Spherical
2.	Bacillus	Rod-shaped
3.	Vibrium	Icosahedron
4.	Spirillum	Spiral

22. Earth has amazing bio-diversity. The number of species on Earth that are known and described ranges between:

1.	0.8 - 1.0 million	2.	1.7 - 1.8 million
3.	7 – 8 million	4.	20 – 50 million

23. Identify the correct statement regarding Euglenoids:

1.	Majority of them are marine water organisms found in running water.
2.	The cell wall has stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface.
3.	They have only one flagellum.
4.	Though they are photosynthetic in the presence of sunlight, when deprived of sunlight they behave like heterotrophs.

24. ‘Toddy’, a traditional drink of some parts of southern India is made by fermenting sap from:
1. palms
2. soybean
3. bamboo shoots
4. barley

25. The consumers that feed on herbivores are correctly described as:
1. Primary producers
2. Primary consumers
3. Secondary carnivores
4. Secondary consumers

26. Which of the following gases is responsible for the least contribution to total global warming?
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Methane
3. CFCs
4. N₂O

27. The salient features of the Double-helix structure of DNA include all the following except:

1.	It is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is constituted by sugar-phosphate, and the bases project inside.
2.	The two chains have anti-parallel polarity.
3.	The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bonds (H-bonds) forming base pairs (bp).
4.	The two chains are coiled in a left-handed fashion.

28. All the following are purposes served by transpiration in plants except:

1.	It creates transpiration pull for absorption and transport in plants.
2.	It supplies water for photosynthesis.
3.	It warms leaf surfaces to activate enzymes for carbon fixation.
4.	It maintains the shape and structure of the plants by keeping cells turgid.

29. The vegetative propagule in the angiosperm Agave is known as:
1. Bulbil
2. Runner
3. Rhizome
4. Bulb

30. In dicot roots, initiation of lateral roots takes place in the cells of:

1.	Endodermis	2.	Pericycle
3.	Epiblema	4.	Hypodermis

31. Nitrifying bacteria are:
1. chemoautotrophs
2. photoautotrophs
3. chemoheterotrophs
4. methanogens

32. The water-splitting complex in green plants is associated with:

1.	PS I, which itself is physically located on the inner side of the membrane of the thylakoid.
2.	PS I, which itself is physically located on the outer side of the membrane of the thylakoid.
3.	PS II, which itself is physically located on the inner side of the membrane of the thylakoid.
4.	PS II, which itself is physically located on the outer side of the membrane of the thylakoid.

33. For the formation of interfascicular cambium and cork cambium the parenchyma cells first undergo:

1.	Differentiation	2.	Dedifferentiation
3.	Redifferentiation	4.	Reverse differentiation

34. During glycolysis, an ATP molecule is synthesised during the conversion of:

I:	BPGA to 3-phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)
II:	PEP to pyruvic acid

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

35. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	The proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc and cryIIAb control the corn borer.
Statement II:	The proteins encoded by the gene cryIAb control the cotton bollworms.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

Biology I - Section B

36. All the following biomolecules can be called both polymers and macromolecules except:
1. Lipids
2. Proteins
3. Carbohydrates
4. Nucleic acids

37. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	The evolutions of the flower and its pollinator species are tightly linked with one another.
Reason (R):	Plants need the help of animals for pollinating their flowers and dispersing their seeds.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

38. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis.
2.	Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP).
3.	Gross primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers).
4.	Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.

39. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	All prokaryotes have a cell wall surrounding the cell membrane except in mycoplasma.
Statement II:	No organelles, like the ones in eukaryotes, are found in prokaryotic cells except for ribosomes.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

40. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is known as:
1. Autogamy
2. Geitonogamy
3. Cleistogamy
4. Xenogamy

41. Which of the following will not be true for gymnosperms?

1.	Gymnosperms lack vessels in their xylem.
2.	Gymnosperms have albuminous cells and sieve cells.
3.	Gymnosperms lack sieve tubes and companion cells.
4.	Gymnosperms lack secondary growth.

42. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Cytosine is common for both DNA and RNA.
2.	Uracil is present in RNA at the place of Thymine.
3.	A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1'C pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic linkage to form a nucleoside.
4.	When a phosphate group is linked to OH of 2'C of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage, a corresponding nucleotide is formed.

43. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	A high dose of UV-B causes inflammation of cornea, called snow-blindness.
Reason (R):	UV radiation of wavelengths shorter than UV-B are almost completely absorbed by Earth’s atmosphere, given that the ozone layer is intact.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

44. In Cycas:

I:	coralloid roots are associated with N₂-fixing cyanobacteria
II:	the stems are unbranched
III:	the pinnate leaves persist for a few years

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

45. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	It is necessary to define the boundaries that would demarcate the region and the strand of DNA that would be transcribed.
Reason (R):	In transcription, only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied into RNA.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

46. Which histone is not a part of the octamer that forms the core of histone molecules in a nucleosome?
1. H1
2. H2A
3. H2B
3. H3

47. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	It is better to consider the respiratory pathway as an amphibolic pathway rather than as a catabolic one.
Reason (R):	The respiratory pathway is involved in both anabolism and catabolism.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

48. What would be true for Alternaria but not for Puccinia?

1.	Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
2.	Sexual stage is unknown
3.	Lack of vegetative reproduction
4.	Called as bracket fungi

49. Biodiversity hotspots are not characterised by:

1.	Having a large number of species
2.	Abundance of endemic species
3.	Being mostly located in the tropics
4.	Being mostly located in the polar regions

50. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	Stem tendrils which develop from axillary buds are slender and spirally coiled and help plants to climb such as in Citrus and Bougainvillea.
Statement II:	Axillary buds of stems may get modified into woody, straight and pointed thorns found in many plants such as gourds and grapevines.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

Biology II - Section A

51. Each ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of:

1.	the vas deferens with the duct of the bulbourethral gland
2.	the vas deferens with the duct of the seminal vesicle
3.	the epididymis and the vas deferens
4.	the duct of bulbourethral gland and the urethra

52. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Phylum]		Column II [Characteristic]
A.	Porifera	P.	Water vascular system
B.	Aschelminthes	Q.	Canal system
C.	Echinodermata	R.	Pseudocoelom
D.	Hemichordata	S.	Stomochord

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	R	P	S
2.	S	R	Q	P
3.	Q	S	R	P
4.	R	S	P	Q

53. PCT and DCT of a nephron are respectively lined with:

1.	Columnar brush-bordered epithelium and simple cuboidal epithelium
2.	Cuboidal brush-bordered epithelium and simple cuboidal epithelium
3.	Cuboidal brush-bordered epithelium and simple columnar epithelium
4.	Columnar brush-bordered epithelium and simple columnar epithelium

54. Techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material (DNA and RNA), to introduce these into host organisms and thus change the phenotype of the host organism comes under:
1. Bioprocess engineering
2. Genetic engineering
3. Bioinformatics
4. Biomedical technology

55. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	Protonephridia or flame cells are the excretory structures in Aschelminthes.
Statement II:	Reptiles, birds, land snails, and insects are uricotelic animals.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

56. The somatic neural system relays impulses from:

1.	the CNS to skeletal muscles
2.	the CNS to the involuntary organs and smooth muscles of the body
3.	the skeletal muscles of the CNS
4.	the involuntary organs and smooth muscles of the body to the CNS

57. A man has type AB blood and he marries a woman with type O blood. Two children are born to the couple and they also adopted one child. If child 1 has type A blood, child 2 has type B blood, and child 3 has type O blood, which child was adopted?
1. Child 1
2. Child 2
3. Child 3
4. Cannot be determined

58. Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about:
1. 30 %
2. 50 %
3. 70 %
4. 90 %

59. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	Periplaneta americana is dioecious.
Statement II:	The development of Periplaneta americana is holometabolous.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

60. Symptoms like constipation, abdominal pain and cramps, stools with excess mucous and blood clots are commonly seen in:

1.	Amoebic dysentery	2.	Ascariasis
3.	Typhoid	4.	Cholera

61. The son of a woman who carries the gene for colour blindness [but herself is not affected]:

1.	can never be colour blind
2.	has a 25 per cent chance of being colour blind
3.	has a 50 per cent chance of being colour blind
4.	has a 100 per cent chance of being colour blind

62. The membranes of which of the following cell organelle are not included in the endomembrane system of a eukaryotic cell?
1. Vacuole
2. Lysosome
3. Plastid
4. Endoplasmic reticulum

63. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Myasthenia gravis	An auto-immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle.
2.	Muscular dystrophy	Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to a genetic disorder.
3.	Tetany	Rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle due to high Ca²⁺ in body fluid.
4.	Gout	Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals.

64. Match the stage of Prophase I given in Column I with the corresponding event in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Zygotene	P	Terminalisation of chiasmata
B	Pachytene	Q	Appearance of chiasmata
C	Diplotene	R	Crossing over
D	Diakinesis	S	Pairing of homologues

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	R	P	S
2.	S	R	Q	P
3.	Q	S	R	P
4.	R	S	P	Q

65. The sobriquet "Lungs of the planet Earth” is used for:

1.	Western Ghats in India	2.	Alpine tundra
3.	Amazon rainforest	4.	Khasi and Jaintia Hills

66. An impairment affecting synthesis or release of ADH results in:

1.	a diminished ability of the kidney to conserve water
2.	enhanced re-absorption of water by the collecting duct of the nephron
3.	glycosuria and ketonuria
4.	a generalised vasoconstriction in the body leading to uncontrolled hypertension

67. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year-old girl with:

1.	adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
2.	alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
3.	phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency
4.	homogentisic acid oxidase deficiency

68. The frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles of a gene in a population are 0.7 and 0.3 respectively. The expected frequency for heterozygotes in the population is likely to be:

1.	42%	2.	49%
3.	21%	4.	9%

69. What is the maximum number of oxygen molecules that a molecule of haemoglobin can carry?

1.	2	2.	4
3.	6	4.	8

70. Which of the following secondary metabolites is a carbohydrate-binding protein [Lectin]?
1. Abrin
2. Vinblastin
3. Curcumin
4. Concanavalin A

71. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the layers in the wall of alimentary canal:

1.	Serosa is the outermost layer and is made up of a thin mesothelium with some connective tissues.
2.	Muscularis is formed by skeletal muscles usually arranged into an outer circular and an inner longitudinal layer.
3.	The sub-mucosal layer is formed of loose connective tissues containing nerves, blood and lymph vessels.
4.	The innermost layer lining the lumen of the alimentary canal is the mucosa.

72. Match the pulmonary volume/capacity given in Column I with the corresponding description in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Expiratory reserve volume	P	Additional volume of air, a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration.
B	Inspiratory reserve volume	Q	Additional volume of air, a person can expire by a forcible expiration.
C	Residual volume	R	Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration.
D	Functional residual capacity	S	Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration.

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	P	Q	S	R
3.	Q	P	R	S
4.	Q	P	S	R

73. Which of the following conditions is not a case of aneuploidy?
1. Down’s syndrome
2. Turner’s syndrome
3. Thalassemia
4. Klinefelter’s syndrome

74. A motor neuron along with the muscle fibres connected to it constitutes a:

1.	Neuro-muscular junction
2.	Motor end plate
3.	Sarcomere
4.	Motor unit

75. Identify a vertebrate chordate amongst the following:

1.	Ascidia	2.	Doliolum
3.	Brannchiostoma	4.	Petromyzon

76. Compressed natural gas (CNG) is a fuel gas mainly composed of:
1. Hydrogen
2. Methane
3. Ammonia
4. Sulphur dioxide

77. Study the given two statements:

Statement I:	The eye of the octopus and the eye of mammals are homologous.
Statement II:	Sweet potato and potato are an example of homology.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

78. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is caused by a bacterium?
1. Trypanosomiasis
2. Syphilis
3. Genital warts
4. Trichomoniasis

79. The functions of hormones of Fight or Flight do not include:

1.	pupillary dilation
2.	piloerection
3.	increase in the strength of heart contraction
4.	storage of glucose into glycogen resulting in a decreased concentration of glucose in the blood

80. Intrinsic factor, a factor essential for the absorption of vitamin B12, is secreted by:

1.	Parietal cells of gastric mucosa
2.	Goblet cells
3.	Paneth cells in the small intestine
4.	Brunner’s gland in the duodenum

81. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the:

1.	mother between 20 weeks and 24 weeks of pregnancy
2.	mother early in pregnancy
3.	mother immediately after the delivery of the child
4.	new-born immediately after the delivery

82. If the population pyramid of an associated population has an extremely broad base, it is:

1.	a rapidly expanding population
2.	a stable population
3.	a population where there were more old individuals than young individuals
4.	a population with more males than females

83. Inbreeding is important in animal husbandry because it:
1. increases vigour
2. improves the breed
3. increases heterozygosity
4. increases homozygosity

84. If a plasmid is to be used as a cloning vector, the most important feature which must be present in it is:

1.	Origin of replication (Ori)
2.	Presence of a selectable marker
3.	Presence of sites for restriction endonuclease
4.	Being linear rather than circular

85. Essential for the maintenance of the endometrium, what hormone is secreted in large amounts by the corpus luteum in a non-pregnant female?
1. hCG
2. Progesterone
3. Estrogen
4. LH

Biology II - Section B

86. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	Removal of a keystone species from a community affects community structure significantly.
Reason (R):	Keystone species are always the apex predators in an ecosystem.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

87. The mode of inheritance of the trait [shown by solid symbols] in the given pedigree is most likely:

1.	Autosomal recessive	2.	Autosomal dominant
3.	Sex linked recessive	4.	Sex linked dominant

88. Identify the correct statement:

1.	Evolution by natural selection works best on a population having no variation.
2.	Mutation is a relatively unimportant source of variation and is not the foundation for evolution.
3.	The effects of genetic drift are most apparent in small populations.
4.	Inbreeding increases the proportion of heterozygous individuals in a population.

89. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Irrigation without proper drainage of water leads to water-logging in the soil.
Statement II:	Besides affecting the crops, water-logging draws salt to the surface of the soil.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

90. ELISA stands for:

1.	Easily Located Immuno Specific Antigen
2.	Early Live Inactive Surface Antigen
3.	Energy Loaded Intermediate Site on Apoenzyme
4.	Enzyme-Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay

91. The cell shown in the given figure is at:

1.	Early Prophase	2.	Transition to Metaphase
3.	Anaphase	4.	Telophase

92. The T-cells:

I:	themselves do not secrete antibodies
II:	help B cells to produce antibodies

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

93. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	When Griffith injected a mixture of heat-killed S and live R bacteria, the mice died.
Reason (R):	Mice infected with the S strain (virulent) die from pneumonia infection but mice infected with the R strain do not develop pneumonia.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

94. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	A continuous culturing method produces a larger biomass, leading to higher yields of the desired protein.
Reason (R):	In a continuous culture system, the used medium is drained out from one side while the fresh medium is added from the other to maintain the cells in their physiologically most active log/exponential phase.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

95. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	As the filtrate passes upward in the ascending limb of the Loop of Henle, it gets diluted.
Reason (R):	The ascending limb is impermeable to water but allows the transport of electrolytes actively or passively.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

96. Consider the two statements regarding the human internal ear:

Statement I:	The malleus is attached to the tympanic membrane and the stapes is attached to the oval window of the cochlea.
Statement II:	At the base of the cochlea, the scala vestibuli ends at the round window, while the scala tympani terminates at the oval window which opens to the middle ear.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

97. The number of chromosomes in the male and female is/are not equal in:

I:	Humans
II:	Honeybees
III:	Grasshoppers
IV:	Drosophila

1. Only II
2. Only I and IV
3. Only II and III
4. I, II, III and IV

98. For a female becoming haemophilic:

I:	mother of such a female has to be at least a carrier.
II:	father of such a female has to be at least a carrier.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

99. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	The Golgi apparatus, also known as the Golgi body, is like a post office.
Reason (R):	The Golgi apparatus is an important site for the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

100. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	As long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances of conception are almost nil upto six months following parturition.
Reason (R):	Although ovulation occurs, the endometrium does not undergo any change during the period of intense lactation following parturition.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

Chemistry - Section A

101. Consider the following statements about sucrose:

a:	It is a dextrorotary compound.
b:	It is composed of $\alpha - D- $Glucose and $\beta- \text D- $ Fructose units
c:	It reduces Tollens' reagent.

The correct statements are:

1.	(a) and (b) only	2.	(b) and (c) only
3.	(a) and (c) only	4.	(a), (b), and (c)

102. The most stable peroxide among the following is:
1. $Li_2O_{2} $
2. $Na_2O_2$
3. $K_2O_2$
4. $Rb_2O_2$

103. Which among the following complex is optically active?
1. $\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{Cl}_3\right] $
2. $ \left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_4 \mathrm{Cl}_2\right] \mathrm{Br} $
3. $ \left[\mathrm{Ni}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_6\right] \mathrm{Cl}_2 $
4. $\left[\mathrm{Pt}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)\left(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right)(\mathrm{en}) \mathrm{ClBr}\right] $

104. When dissolved in 20 g of benzene $(C_6H_6)$ 1g of $AB_2$ lowers the freezing point by 3 K whereas 1g of $AB_4$ lowers it by 2 K. The atomic mass of B is-
(Given: Molal depression constant for benzene = 5.1 K kg mol^-1)
1. 21.25 u
2. 33.92 u
3. 42.65 u
4. 52.11 u

105. Among the following, the crystal system which includes end-centered is
1. a= b = c and $\alpha = \beta = \gamma $ = 90°
2. a= b $\neq$ c and $\alpha = \beta = \gamma $ = 90°
3. a $\neq$ b $\neq$ c and $\alpha = \beta = \gamma $ = 90°
4. a= b = c and $\alpha = \beta = \gamma $ $\neq$ 90°

106. Which of the following compounds is not an isomer of 3-ethyl-2-methylpentane?

1.
2.
3.
4.

107. What is the molality of aqueous urea solution in which mole fraction of urea is 0.2.
1. 13.8 m
2. 11.2 m
3. 4.1 m
4. 3.8 m

108.

7.5 g of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at S.T.P. The gas is
1. NO
2. $N_{2} O$
3. CO
4. $C O_{2}$

109. The correct order of increasing metallic character is given by:
1. P < Si < Be < Na
2. Na < Be < Si < P
3. Be < Na < P < Si
4. Si < P < Na < Be

110. Which of the following is not a resonance structure of the others?

1.		2.
3.		4.

111. Which one of the following compounds is the most acidic?

1.		2.
3.		4.

112. Which of the following electronic transition in hydrogen atom releases maximum amount of energy?
1. n = 5 to n =4
2. n = 4 to n = 3
3. n = 3 to n = 2
4. n = 2 to n = 1

113. The heat of combustion of ethanol into carbon dioxides and water is –327 kcal at constant pressure. The heat evolved (in cal) at constant volume and 27°C (if all gases behave ideally) is:
(R = 2 cal mol^–1 K^–1)
1. 316 kcal
2. 326 kcal
3. 365 kcal
4. 342 kcal

114. Maximum solubility of AgCl is in
1. 0.1 M NaCl
2. 0.1 M $AgNO_3$
3. 0.1 M $NH_4OH$
4. 0.1 M $CaCl_2$

115. Which of the following is/are antiseptic?

I.	2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture.
II.	Boric acid in dilute aqueous solution.
III.	0.2 % solution of phenol.

1. I only
2. I and II only
3. I, II and III
4. II and III only

116. Arrange the (C-H) bonds x, y, and z in decreasing order of their bond dissociation energies in homolysis cleavage:

1. y > x > z
2. z > x > y
3. z > y > z
4. y > z > x

117. Phthalimide on treatment with ethanolic NaOH forms a compound X which on heating with benzyl chloride followed by alkaline hydrolysis gives:
1. Aniline
2. Benzylamine
3. Phenol
4. Benzamide

118. Which of the following is not a typical transition element?
1. Cu
2. Zn
3. Ni
4. Pd

119.

Match the refining methods (Column I) with metals (Column II).

Column I (Refining methods)	COlumn II (Metals)
(I) Liquation	(a) Zr
(II) Zone Refining	(b) Ni
(III) Mond Process	(c) Sn
(IV) Van Arkel Method	(d) Ga

1. (I)-(c) ; (II)-(a) ; (III)-(b) ; (IV)-(d)
2. (I)-(c) ; (II)-(d) ; (III)-(b) ; (IV)-(a)
3. (I)-(b) ; (II)-(d) ; (III)-(a) ; (IV)-(c)
4. (I)-(b) ; (II)-(c) ; (III)-(d) ; (IV)-(a)

120. Be and Al exhibit diagonal relationship. Which of the following statement about them is/are not true?

(i).	Both react with HCl to liberate H₂.
(ii).	They are made passive by HNO₃.
(iii).	Their carbides given acetylene on treatment with water
(iv).	Their oxides are amphoteric.

1. (iii) and (iv)
2. (i) and (iii)
3. (i) only
4. (iii) only

121. Given:
$E^\circ_{Fe/Fe^{2+}}=0.44~V~\text{and}~E^\circ_{Sn/Sn^{2+}}=0.14~V. $
The $E^\circ $ for the cell: $\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{~s})+\mathrm{Sn}^{2+}(a q) \rightarrow \mathrm{Fe}^{2+}(a q)+\mathrm{Sn}(\mathrm{~s})$ will be:

1.	0.58 V	2.	–0.30 V
3.	0.30 V	4.	–0.58 V

122. Consider the following statements:

a.	Fehling solution A is alkaline sodium potassium tartrate and Fehling solution B is aqueous copper sulphate.
b.	Benzaldehyde reduces both Tollens' reagent and Fehling solution.
c.	Benzophenone gives positive iodoform test.

The incorrect statements are:
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (a), (b) and (c)
4. (a) and (c) only

123.

The species among the following has a non-zero dipole moment is:
1. ${SiF}_{4}$
2. ${XeF}_{4}$
3. ${XeF}_{5}^{+}$
4. ${TeCI}_{6}$

124. For the reaction $2N_2O_5(g) \rightarrow 4NO_2 (g) + O_2(g) $ if $\frac{-\Delta\left[\mathrm{N}_2 \mathrm{O}_5\right]}{\Delta t} $ is y then $\frac{\Delta\left[\mathrm{O}_2\right]}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}$ is:
1. y
2. (y)²
3. $\text y \over 2$
4. 2y

125. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	o-Cresol has lower acidity compared to phenol.
Statement II:	The IUPAC name of o-cresol is 2-methoxyphenol.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1.	Statement I is true but statement II is false.
2.	Statement I is false but statement II is true.
3.	Both statement I and statement II are true.
4.	Both statement I and statement II are false.

126.

0.56 g KOH is dissolved in 200 mL solution. What is the pH of solution ?
1. 1.3
2. 12.7
3. 2.3
4. 11.7

127. An oxide of nitrogen that is obtained by the thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate is:
1. NO₂
2. N₂O₃
3. NO
4. N₂O

128.

Standard entropies of X₂, Y₂ and XY₃ are 60, 40 and 50JK^-1mol^-1 respectively. For the reaction
$\frac{1}{2} X_{2}$ $+$ $\frac{3}{2} Y_{2}$ $⇋$ ${XY}_{3}$ $;$ $∆ H$ $=$ $- 30$ $kJ$ to be at equilibrium, the temperature should be:
1. 750 K
2. 1000 K
3. 1250 K
4. 500 K

129.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a.	Elements of group 15 form electron deficient hydrides
b.	All elements of group 14 form electron precise hydrides
c.	Electron precise hydrides have tetrahedral geometries.
d.	Electron rich hydrides can act as Lewis acids.

Choose the correct option
1. (a, b)
2. (b, c)
3. (c, d)
4. (a, d)

130. Which among the following is not a redox reaction?
1. $2KClO_3~\xrightarrow{~~~\Delta~~~}~2KCl+3O_2$
2. $CaCO_3~\xrightarrow{~~~\Delta~~~}~CaO+CO_2$
3. $2H_2O~\xrightarrow{~~~\Delta~~~}~2H_2+O_2$
4. $2NaH~\xrightarrow{~~~\Delta~~~}~2Na+H_2$

131. Principal emulsifying agent of O/W emulsion is
1. Synthetic soaps
2. Long chain alcohols
3. Lampblack
4. Heavy metal salts of fatty acids

132.

Match column l with column ll:

Column I (Name Reaction)		Column II (Reagents)
(a)	Gattermann- Koch	(i)	CrO₂Cl₂ - CS₂, H₃O^⊕
(b)	Rosenmund reduction	(ii)	CO, HCl, Anhy.AICI₃
(c)	Stephen reaction	(iii)	H₂ + Pd - BaSO₄
(d)	Etard reaction	(iv)	SnCl₂ + HCl , H₃O^⊕

1. a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
2. a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
3. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
4. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

133. Select the correct formula considering the relationship between rate constant and activation energy:
1. $ \log \frac{\mathrm{k}_1}{\mathrm{k}_2}=\frac{\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{a}}}{2.303 \mathrm{R}}\left[\frac{\mathrm{T}_2-\mathrm{T}_1}{\mathrm{~T}_1 \mathrm{~T}_2}\right]$
2. $ \log \frac{\mathrm{k}_1}{\mathrm{k}_2}=\frac{2.303 \mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{a}}}\left[\frac{\mathrm{T}_2-\mathrm{T}_1}{\mathrm{~T}_1 \mathrm{~T}_2}\right] $
3. $\log \frac{\mathrm{k}_2}{\mathrm{k}_1}=\frac{\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{a}}}{2.303 \mathrm{R}}\left[\frac{\mathrm{T}_2-\mathrm{T}_1}{\mathrm{~T}_1 \mathrm{~T}_2}\right] $
4. $ \log \frac{\mathrm{k}_2}{\mathrm{k}_1}=\frac{2.303 \mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{a}}}{\mathrm{R}}\left[\frac{\mathrm{T}_2-\mathrm{T}_1}{\mathrm{~T}_1 \mathrm{~T}_2}\right]$

134.

Overlapping of orbital that does not produce $σ$ bond is:
(Assume z is the internuclear axis)

1.	p_z - p_z	2.	s - p_z
3.	s - s	4.	p_x - p_x

135.

For the reaction, A(g) + 2B(g) ⇌ 3C, K_c = 10². If at equilibrium one mole of A is added and 1 mole of C is removed then, the value of K_c will be:

1.	10²	2.	10³
3.	10⁴	4.	10

Chemistry - Section B

136.

There is no S-S bond in
1. $S_{2} O_{4}^{2 -}$
2. $S_{2} O_{5}^{2 -}$
3. $S_{2} O_{3}^{2 -}$
4. $S_{2} O_{7}^{2 -}$

137.

The most reactive compound among the following towards electrophilic substitution reaction is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

138. The molecule that is not hydrolyzed by water at 25^oC is:
1. SF₄
2. SF₆
3. BF₃
4. SiCl₄

139. The IUPAC name of the given compound is-

1. cis-2,3-Diethylbut-2-ene
2. trans-2,3-Diethylbut-2-ene
3. cis-3,4-Dimethylhex-3-ene
4. trans-3,4-Dimethylhex-3-ene

140.

Consider the following reaction,

The compounds C and D are:

1.
2.
3.
4.

141.

For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the correct order of stability of +2 oxidation state among the following is:
(At. No Cr= 24, Mn= 25, Fe=26, Co= 27)

1. Fe>Mn>Co>Cr
2. Co>Mn>Fe>Cr
3. Cr>Mn>Co>Fe
4. Mn>Fe>Cr>Co

142.

In which of the following coordination entities the magnitude of $\Delta_{oct}$(CFSE in the octahedral field) will be maximum?
(Atomic number Co = 27)
1.   ${[Co {(H_{2} O)}_{6}]}^{3 +}$
2. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺
3.   ${[Co {(CN)}_{6}]}^{3 -}$
4.   ${[Co {(C_{2} O_{4})}_{3}]}^{3 -}$

143.

Assertion (A):	Ortho nitrophenol is more volatile than para nitrophenol.
Reason (R):	In ortho nitrophenol, intramolecular as well as intermolecular hydrogen bonding is present while in para nitrophenol only intermolecular hydrogen bonding is present.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

144.

Assertion (A):	Ozone is destroyed by chlorofluoro Carbon (CFC) in the upper stratosphere
Reason (R):	Ozone holes increase the amount of UV radiation reaching the earth

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

145.

Which of the following system has maximum number of unpaired electrones –
1. d $^{5}$ (Octahedral, low spin)
2. d $^{8}$ (Tetrahedral)
3. d $^{6}$ (Octahedral, low spin)
4. d $^{3}$ (Octahedral)

146.

If Avogadro number $N_{A}$, is changed from $6 . 022 \times \left(10\right)^{23}$$\text{mol}^{- 1}$ to $6 . 022 \times \left(10\right)^{20} ~\text{mol}^{- 1}$ this would change:

1.	The definition of mass in units of grams
2.	The mass of one mole of carbon
3.	The ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation
4.	The ratio of elements to each other in a compound

147. The correct representation of Nylon-6, 6 is-

1.
2.
3.
4.

148. The reason behind formation of isocyanide in the reaction between alkyl halide and AgCN, is:

1.	AgCN is an electrovalent compound
2.	AgCN is a covalent compound
3.	In -CN, lone pair of e^-s is present on carbon only
4.	None of the above

149. Which of the following solvents favours $S_N2$ mechanism?
1. Non polar solvent
2. Polar protic solvent
3. Polar aprotic solvent
4. All of these

150.

The emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place is:
Ni_(s)+2Ag⁺(0.002 M) →Ni²⁺(0.160 M) + 2Ag_(s)
( Given that $E_{cell}^{o}$= 1.05 V)
1. E_cell= 9.14 V
2. E_cell= 0.0914 V
3. E_cell= 0.00914 V
4. E_cell= 0.914 V

Physics - Section A

151. Four resistors are connected as shown in the following figure. A $6$ V battery of negligible resistance is connected across terminals $A$ and $C.$ The potential difference across terminals $B$ and $D$ would be:

1. zero
2. $1.5$ V
3. $2$ V
4. $3$ V

152. A nichrome wire $50~\text{cm}$ long and $1~\text{mm}^{2}$ cross-section carries a current of $4~\text{A}$ when connected to a $2~\text{V}$ battery. The resistivity of nichrome wire is:

1.	$1\times 10^{-6} ~\Omega-\text{m}$
2.	$4\times 10^{-7}~\Omega-\text{m}$
3.	$3\times 10^{-7}~\Omega-\text{m}$
4.	$2\times 10^{-7}~\Omega-\text{m}$

153.

Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct match from the given choices.

	Column I		Column II
(A)	Root mean square speed of gas molecules	(P)	$\dfrac13nm\bar v^2$
(B)	The pressure exerted by an ideal gas	(Q)	$ \sqrt{\dfrac{3 R T}{M}} $
(C)	The average kinetic energy of a molecule	(R)	$ \dfrac{5}{2} R T $
(D)	The total internal energy of a mole of a diatomic gas	(S)	$\dfrac32k_BT$

	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	(Q)	(P)	(S)	(R)
2.	(R)	(Q)	(P)	(S)
3.	(R)	(P)	(S)	(Q)
4.	(Q)	(R)	(S)	(P)

154. A body of mass $m=10$ kg is attached to a wire of length $0.3$ m. Its breaking stress is $4.8\times 10^{7}$ N/m². The area of the cross-section of the wire is $10^{-6}$ m². What is the maximum angular velocity with which it can be rotated in the horizontal circle?
1. $4$ rad/s
2. $8$ rad/s
3. $1$ rad/s
4. $2$ rad/s

155.

A body of mass $2$ kg is driven by an engine delivering constant power $1~\text{J/s}$. The body starts from rest and moves in a straight line. After $9$ s, the kinetic energy of the body is:
1. $4.5~\text{J}$
2. $9~\text{J}$
3. $13.5~\text{J}$
4. $18~\text{J}$

156.

The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at temperatures $100~^\circ\text{C}$ and $110~^\circ\text{C}.$ The rate of heat flow in the rod is found to be $4.0$ J/s. If the ends are maintained at temperatures $200~^\circ \text{C}$ and $210 ~^\circ \text{C},$ the rate of heat flow will be:
1. $44.0$ J/s
2. $16.8$ J/s
3. $8.0$ J/s
4. $4.0$ J/s

157.

The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation $\theta \left ( t \right )=2t^{3}-6t^{2}.$ The torque on the wheel becomes zero at:
1. $t=0.5$ s
2. $t=0.25$ s
3. $t=2$ s
4. $t=1$ s

158.

The figure shows the elliptical path of a planet about the sun. The two shaded parts have equal area. If $t_1$ and $t_2$ be the time taken by the planet to go from $a$ to $b$ and from $c$ to $d$ respectively, then:

1.	$t_1<t_2$
2.	$t_1=t_2$
3.	$t_1>t_2$
4.	insufficient information between $t_1$ and $t_2$

159. A disc revolves with a speed of $0.5$ revolutions per second and has a radius of $15$ cm. Two coins are placed at $3$ cm and $12$ cm away from the center. If the coefficient of friction between coins and the disc is $0.2,$ then:

1.	coin at $3$ cm will slip.
2.	coin at $12$ cm will slip.
3.	both coins will slip.
4.	no coin will slip.

160.

The speed of light in media $M_1$ and $M_2$ is $1.5\times10^{8}$ m/s and $2.0\times10^{8}$ m/s respectively. A ray of light enters from medium $M_1$ and $M_2$ at an incidence angle $i.$ If the ray suffers total internal reflection, the value of $i$ is:

1.	equal to or less than $\text{sin}^{-1}\left (\frac{3}{5} \right )$
2.	equal to or greater than $\text{sin}^{-1}\left (\frac{3}{4} \right )$
3.	less than $\text{sin}^{-1}\left (\frac{2}{3} \right )$
4.	equal to $\text{sin}^{-1}\left (\frac{2}{3} \right )$

161.

An object is at a distance of $30~\text{cm}$ in front of a concave mirror of focal length $10~\text{cm}.$ The image of the object will be:

1.	smaller in size.
2.	inverted.
3.	between focus and center of curvature.
4.	all of these.

162.

Energy per unit volume for a capacitor having area $A$ and separation $d$ kept at a potential difference $V$ is given by:

1.	$\dfrac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0\dfrac{V^2}{d^2}$	2.	$\dfrac{1}{2}\dfrac{V^2}{\varepsilon_0d^2}$
3.	$\dfrac{1}{2}CV^2$	4.	$\dfrac{Q^2}{2C}$

163. When the current through a solenoid increases at a constant rate, the induced current:

1.	is a constant and in the direction of the inducing current.
2.	is a constant and is opposite to the direction of inducing current.
3.	increases with time and is in the direction of the inducing current.
4.	increases with time and opposite to the direction of the inducing current.

164. A gas is heated at constant pressure. The fraction of heat supplied used for external work is:

1.	$\dfrac{1}{{\gamma}}$	2.	$\left({{1}{-}\dfrac{1}{{\gamma}}}\right)$
3.	${\gamma}{-}{1}$	4.	$\left({{1}{-}\dfrac{1}{{{\gamma}}^{2}}}\right)$

165.

The angle of a prism is $A$. One of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence $2{A}$ on the first surface return back through the same path after suffering reflection at the silvered surface. The refractive index $\mu,$ of the prism, is:
1. $2\text{sin}A$
2. $2\text{cos}A$
3. $\dfrac{1}{2}\text{cos}A$
4. $\text{tan}A$

166.

The temperature at which the velocity of sound in air becomes double its velocity at $0^\circ \text{C}$ is:

1.	$435^\circ \text{C}$	2.	$694^\circ \text{C}$
3.	$781^\circ \text{C}$	4.	$819^\circ \text{C}$

167. In an AC circuit, a resistance of $R$ is connected in series with an inductance $L.$ If phase angle between voltage applied and current in the circuit is $45^\circ,$ the value of inductive reactance will be:
1. $R$
2. $\frac{R}{2}$
3. $\frac{3R}{2}$
4. $\frac{R}{\sqrt2}$

168.

The displacement of a particle varies with time according to the relation, $y=a~\text{sin} \omega t+b~\text{cos} \omega t.$

1.	the motion is oscillatory but not SHM
2.	the motion is SHM with amplitude $a+b$
3.	the motion is SHM with amplitude $a^{2}+b^{2}$
4.	the motion is SHM with amplitude $\sqrt{a^{2}+b^{2}}$

169.

Which of the following points is the likely position of the center of mass of the system shown in the figure?

1. $A$
2. $B$
3. $C$
4. $D$

170.

An engine moving towards a wall with a velocity $50$ m/s emits a note of $1.2$ kHz. The speed of sound in air is $350$ m/s. The frequency of the note after reflection from the wall as heard by the driver of the engine is:
1. $2.4$ kHz
2. $0.24$ kHz
3. $1.6$ kHz
4. $1.2$ kHz

171. A dip needle, free to rotate in the vertical plane only, is placed at the equator in (E-W) vertical plane then it will stay along:
1. horizontal
2. vertical
3. at $45^\circ \text{C}$ with vertical
4. any position

172.

The magnetic flux linked to a circular coil of radius $R$ is given by:
$\phi=2t^3+4t^2+2t+5$ Wb.
What is the magnitude of the induced EMF in the coil at $t=5$ s?
1. $108$ V
2. $197$ V
3. $150$ V
4. $192$ V

173.

The motion of a particle of mass $m$ is described by $y=ut+\frac{1}{2}gt^{2}.$ The force acting on the particle is:
1. $3mg$
2. $mg$
3. $\frac{mg}{2}$
4. $2mg$

174.

In a certain region of space with volume $0.2~\text m^3,$ the electric potential is found to be $5~\text V$ throughout. The magnitude of the electric field in this region is:
1. $0.5~\text{N/C}$
2. $1~\text{N/C}$
3. $5~\text{N/C}$
4. zero

175.

What is the de-Broglie wavelength of a bullet of mass $0.040$ kg traveling at the speed of $1.0$ km/s?

1.	$1.65\times10^{-35}$ m	2.	$1.05\times10^{-35}$ m
3.	$2.15\times10^{-35}$ m	4.	$2.11\times10^{-35}$ m

176.

In a double-slit experiment the angular width of a fringe is found to be $0.2^\circ$ on a screen placed $1 ~\text{m}$ away. The wavelength of light used is $600 ~\text{nm}.$ What will be the angular width of the fringe if the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water?
(Take the refractive index of water to be $4/3$).
1. $0.33^\circ$
2. $0.20^\circ$
3. $0.15^\circ$
4. $0.10^\circ$

177.

The mass number of a nucleus is equal to:

1.	the number of neutrons in the nucleus.
2.	the number of protons in the nucleus.
3.	the number of nucleons in the nucleus.
4.	none of them.

178.

Figure shows two processes $A$ and $B$ on a system. Let $\Delta Q_1$ and $\Delta Q_2$ be the heat given to the system in processes $A$ and $B$ respectively. Then:

1. $\Delta Q_1>\Delta Q_2$
2. $\Delta Q_1=\Delta Q_2$
3. $\Delta Q_1<\Delta Q_2$
4. $\Delta Q_1\leq \Delta Q_2$

179. For which gate the given truth table is?

A	B	Y
0	0	1
1	0	1
0	1	1
1	1	0

1.	NAND	2.	AND
3.	OR	4.	NOR

180.

The moment of inertia of a disc about one of its diameters is:

1.	$MR^2$	2.	$\dfrac{MR^2}{3}$
3.	$\dfrac{2MR^2}{3}$	4.	$\dfrac{MR^2}{4}$

181.

Two bullets are fired simultaneously, horizontally and with different speeds from the same place. Which bullet will hit the ground first?

1.	the faster one
2.	the slower one
3.	both will reach simultaneously
4.	depends on the masses

182. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	When height of a tube is less than liquid rise in the capillary tube, the liquid does not overflow.
Reason (R):	Product of radius of meniscus and height of liquid in capillary tube always remains constant.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

183.

The minimum orbital angular momentum of the electron in a hydrogen atom is:
1. $h$
2. $h/2$
3. $h/2\pi$
4. $h/ \lambda$

184. If for the following common emitter circuit, $\mathit{\beta}{=}{100}$, $V_{CE}=7$ V, $V_{BE}=$ negligible, $R_C=2$ ${k}\mathit{\Omega}$, then $I_B=?$

1. $0.01$ mA
2. $0.04$ mA
3. $0.02$ mA
4. $0.03$ mA

185. Plane angle and solid angle have:

1.	both units and dimensions
2.	units but no dimensions
3.	dimensions but no units
4.	no units and no dimensions

Physics - Section B

186.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	The magnetic field due to a segment ${d\vec l}$ of a current-carrying wire carrying a current, $I$ is given by: ${d\vec B}=\dfrac{\mu_0}{4\pi}~I\left({d\vec l}\times\dfrac{\vec r}{r^3}\right ),$ where $\vec{r}$ is the position vector of the field point with respect to the wire segment.
Statement II:	The magnetic field of a current-carrying wire is never parallel to the wire.

1.	Statement I and Statement II are True and Statement I is the correct explanation of Statement II.
2.	Statement I and Statement II are True and Statement I is not the correct explanation of Statement II.
3.	Statement I is True, and Statement II is False.
4.	Statement I is False, and Statement II is True.

187.

The work function of cesium metal is $2.14$ eV. When light of frequency $6\times10^{14}$ Hz is incident on the metal surface, photoemission of electrons occurs. What is the stopping potential of the metal?

1.	$0.212$ V	2.	$0.345$ V
3.	$0.127$ V	4.	$0.311$ V

188.

Electric charge is uniformly distributed along a long straight wire of radius $1$ mm. The charge per cm length of the wire is $Q$ coulomb. Another cylindrical surface of radius $50$ cm and length $1$ m symmetrically encloses the wire as shown in the figure. The total electric flux passing through the cylindrical surface is:

1.	$\dfrac{Q}{\varepsilon _{0}}$	2.	$\dfrac{100Q}{\varepsilon _{0}}$
3.	$\dfrac{10Q}{\pi\varepsilon _{0}}$	4.	$\dfrac{100Q}{\pi\varepsilon _{0}}$

189.

A block is fastened to a spring. The spring has a spring constant of $50$ N m^–1. The block is pulled to a distance $x = 10$ cm from its equilibrium position at $x =0$ on a frictionless surface from rest at $t=0.$ The potential and total energies of the block when it is $5$ cm away from the mean position respectively are:

1.	$0.0625$ J and $0.25 $ J	2.	$0.625$ J and $0.25$ J
3.	$0.0325$ J and $0.35$ J	4.	$0.065$ J and $3.5 $ J

190. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	If the ice on the polar caps of the earth melts, then the length of the day will increase.
Reason (R):	Moment of inertia of the earth increases, as ice on polar caps melts.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

191.

The circuit represents a full wave bridge rectifier when switch $S$ is open. The output voltage $(\text V_0)$ pattern across $R_L$ when $S$ is closed:

1.		2.
3.		4.

192.

In a region of constant potential:

(a)	the electric field is uniform.
(b)	the electric field is zero.
(c)	there can be no charge inside the region.
(d)	the electric field shall necessarily change if a charge is placed outside the region.

Choose the correct option:

1.	(b), (c)	2.	(a), (c)
3.	(b), (d)	4.	(c), (d)

193. Wind blows towards north with a speed of $20$ m/s. A plane flies in air with a velocity relative to ground of $100$ m/s, towards east. Then, the velocity of the plane relative to air is:

1.	$100$ m/s towards east and $20$ m/s towards north.
2.	$100$ m/s towards east and $20$ m/s towards south.
3.	$100$ m/s towards west and $20$ m/s towards north.
4.	$100$ m/s towards west and $20$ m/s towards south.

194.

A heavy stone is thrown from a cliff of height $h$ in a given direction. The speed with which it hits the ground:

a.	must depend on the speed of projection
b.	must be larger than the speed of projection
c.	must be independent of the speed of projection
d.	may be smaller than the speed of projection

Choose the correct option:

1.	(a) and (b)
2.	(b) and (c)
3.	(c) and (d)
4.	none of these

195.

The work done by all the forces (external and internal) on a system equals the change in:
1. total energy
2. kinetic energy
3. potential energy
4. none of these

196. A plane electromagnetic waveform given by: $\vec {E}_1=E_0\hat j\sin(\omega t-kx)$
propagates along the $x$-axis. A second waveform given by: $\vec {E}_2=E_0\hat k\sin(\omega t-kx)$
is also allowed to propagate. The magnetic field has the amplitude: (Assume speed of light in vacuum is $c$)

1.	$\dfrac{E_0}{c}$	2.	$\dfrac{E_0}{2c}$
3.	$\dfrac{\sqrt2E_0}{c}$	4.	Zero

197. A small thin tube is connected to two soap bubbles, one of radius $R$ and the other radius $r$ — so that the air in the two bubbles can flow through the tube. Then, air will flow:

1.	from the larger bubble to the smaller bubble, until the two are of equal size.
2.	from the large bubble to the smaller bubble initially, and the smaller one becomes larger; then the flow is reversed.
3.	from the smaller bubble to the larger one until the smaller bubble becomes very small.
4.	from the larger to the smaller bubble and it bursts the smaller bubble.

198.

A ball is dropped vertically from height $h$ and bounces elastically on the floor (see figure). Which of the following plots best depicts the acceleration of the ball as a function of time?

1.		2.
3.		4.

199. A current $i$ is distributed uniformly over the cross-section of a cylindrical wire of radius $R,$ as shown in the diagram. The magnetic field at the surface is $B_s.$ The magnetic field at the point $P$ inside the cross-section equals: $\left(OP =\dfrac{R}{2}\right )$

1.	$\dfrac{B_s}{2}$	2.	$2 B_s$
3.	$\dfrac{B_s}{4}$	4.	$4 B_s$

200. In an insulator, the energy gap between the conduction band and the valence band is:
1. infinity
2. wide
3. narrow
4. zero

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a:	It is a dextrorotary compound.
b:	It is composed of \(\alpha - D- \)Glucose and \(\beta- \text D- \) Fructose units
c:	It reduces Tollens' reagent.

1.	\(1\times 10^{-6} ~\Omega-\text{m}\)
2.	\(4\times 10^{-7}~\Omega-\text{m}\)
3.	\(3\times 10^{-7}~\Omega-\text{m}\)
4.	\(2\times 10^{-7}~\Omega-\text{m}\)

1.	\(t_1<t_2\)
2.	\(t_1=t_2\)
3.	\(t_1>t_2\)
4.	insufficient information between \(t_1\) and \(t_2\)

1.	coin at \(3\) cm will slip.
2.	coin at \(12\) cm will slip.
3.	both coins will slip.
4.	no coin will slip.

1.	equal to or less than \(\text{sin}^{-1}\left (\frac{3}{5} \right )\)
2.	equal to or greater than \(\text{sin}^{-1}\left (\frac{3}{4} \right )\)
3.	less than \(\text{sin}^{-1}\left (\frac{2}{3} \right )\)
4.	equal to \(\text{sin}^{-1}\left (\frac{2}{3} \right )\)

1.	\(\dfrac{1}{2}\varepsilon_0\dfrac{V^2}{d^2}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{1}{2}\dfrac{V^2}{\varepsilon_0d^2}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{1}{2}CV^2\)	4.	\(\dfrac{Q^2}{2C}\)

1.	\(\dfrac{1}{{\gamma}}\)	2.	\(\left({{1}{-}\dfrac{1}{{\gamma}}}\right)\)
3.	\({\gamma}{-}{1}\)	4.	\(\left({{1}{-}\dfrac{1}{{{\gamma}}^{2}}}\right)\)

1.	\(435^\circ \text{C}\)	2.	\(694^\circ \text{C}\)
3.	\(781^\circ \text{C}\)	4.	\(819^\circ \text{C}\)

1.	the motion is oscillatory but not SHM
2.	the motion is SHM with amplitude \(a+b\)
3.	the motion is SHM with amplitude \(a^{2}+b^{2}\)
4.	the motion is SHM with amplitude \(\sqrt{a^{2}+b^{2}}\)

1.	\(1.65\times10^{-35}\) m	2.	\(1.05\times10^{-35}\) m
3.	\(2.15\times10^{-35}\) m	4.	\(2.11\times10^{-35}\) m

1.	\(MR^2\)	2.	\(\dfrac{MR^2}{3}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{2MR^2}{3}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{MR^2}{4}\)

Statement I:	The magnetic field due to a segment \({d\vec l}\) of a current-carrying wire carrying a current, \(I\) is given by: \({d\vec B}=\dfrac{\mu_0}{4\pi}~I\left({d\vec l}\times\dfrac{\vec r}{r^3}\right ),\) where \(\vec{r}\) is the position vector of the field point with respect to the wire segment.
Statement II:	The magnetic field of a current-carrying wire is never parallel to the wire.

1.	\(\dfrac{Q}{\varepsilon _{0}}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{100Q}{\varepsilon _{0}}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{10Q}{\pi\varepsilon _{0}}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{100Q}{\pi\varepsilon _{0}}\)

1.	\(0.0625\) J and \(0.25 \) J	2.	\(0.625\) J and \(0.25\) J
3.	\(0.0325\) J and \(0.35\) J	4.	\(0.065\) J and \(3.5 \) J

1.	\(100\) m/s towards east and \(20\) m/s towards north.
2.	\(100\) m/s towards east and \(20\) m/s towards south.
3.	\(100\) m/s towards west and \(20\) m/s towards north.
4.	\(100\) m/s towards west and \(20\) m/s towards south.

1.	\(\dfrac{E_0}{c}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{E_0}{2c}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{\sqrt2E_0}{c}\)	4.	Zero

1.	\(\dfrac{B_s}{2}\)	2.	\(2 B_s\)
3.	\(\dfrac{B_s}{4}\)	4.	\(4 B_s\)

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