Biology I - Section A
1. The number of species known and described of algae is more than that of all the following except:
1. | Ferns | 2. | Lichens |
3. | Mosses | 4. | Fungi |
2. Stomatal apparatus in the epidermal tissue system of plants consists of:
1. |
Only stomatal aperture and guard cells but not subsidiary cells. |
2. |
Only stomatal aperture but not guard cells and subsidiary cells. |
3. |
Only guard cells and subsidiary cells but not stomatal aperture. |
4. |
Stomatal aperture, guard cells and subsidiary cells but not other epidermal cells. |
3. The colour/s of visible light that work/s least well for photosynthesis is/are:
1. Red and Blue
2. Violet and Yellow
3. Green
4. Yellow
4. The three steps of decomposition occur:
1. sequentially, with catabolism being the last step.
2. sequentially, with leaching being the last step.
3. simultaneously.
4. sequentially, but not in a particular order.
5. A functional unit of nature, where living organisms interact among themselves and also with the surrounding physical environment, is called as:
1. | A population | 2. | A species |
3. | A biological community | 4. | An ecosystem |
6. The number of times the Krebs cycle turns per glucose molecule will be:
7. Which of the following does not involve a fungus?
1. Commercial production of ethanol
2. Commercial production of citric acid
3. Commercial production of statins
4. Commercial production of streptokinase
8. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): |
The use of pathogens like baculoviruses as biocontrol agent in ecologically sensitive areas should be avoided. |
Reason (R): |
Baculoviruses are broad spectrum general insecticides. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains the (A). |
2. |
(A) is True; (R) is False |
3. |
(A) is False; (R) is False |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A). |
9. The stage of cellular respiration that directly involves oxygen is:
1. |
glycolysis |
2. |
at the end of ETC |
3. |
Krebs cycle |
4. |
the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP |
10. In over 60 % of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at:
1. | 2-celled stage | 2. | 3-celled stage |
3. | 4-celled stage | 4. | 1-celled stage
|
11. During diakinesis of prophase I:
I. Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place.
II. Meiotic spindle is assembled.
III. Nucleolus disappears and the nuclear membrane breaks down.
The correct statements are:
1. |
I, II and III |
2. |
I and II only |
3. |
I and III only |
4. |
II and III only |
12. The biodiversity hotspots in India include all the following except:
1. |
Western Ghats and Sri Lanka |
2. |
Indo-Burma |
3. |
Himalayas |
4. |
Deccan plateau |
13. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
|
Organism |
Length of DNA |
1. |
Bacteriophage ϕ 174 |
5386 base pairs |
2. |
Bacteriophage Lambda |
48502 base pairs |
3. |
Escherichia coli |
4 X 106 base pairs |
4. |
Human beings |
3.3 X 109 base pairs |
14. The stems of maize and sugarcane have:
1. |
stilt roots that are hanging and supporting structures |
2. |
prop roots that are hanging and supporting structures |
3. |
prop roots coming out from the nodes in upper stem |
4. |
supporting stilt roots coming out of the lower nodes of the stem |
15. In mango, the fruit is:
1. |
drupe and mesocarp is fleshy and edible |
2. |
drupe and mesocarp is fibrous |
3. |
berry and mesocarp is fleshy and edible |
4. |
berry and mesocarp is fibrous |
16. ‘Toddy’, a traditional drink of some parts in southern India, is made by fermenting sap from:
1. |
Soyabean |
2. |
Bamboo shoots |
3. |
Palms |
4. |
Sugarcane |
17. Bioprocessing engineering deals with:
1. |
the search for plant and animal species from which medicinal drugs and other commercially valuable compounds can be obtained. |
2. |
developing methods and software tools for understanding biological data. |
3. |
production of active pharmaceutical substances in genetically modified organisms (GMOs). |
4. |
maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical engineering processes. |
18. The wavelengths of light most useful in photosynthesis are:
1. |
green and orange |
2. |
red and blue |
3. |
infrared and yellow |
4. |
red and green |
19. During secondary growth, the meristem that arises within the cortex is called as:
1. pith meristem |
2. cork cambium |
3. cortex cambium |
4. vascular cambium |
20. Consider the given two statements:
I: |
Gingelly oil remains as oil in winters. |
II: |
The fatty acid components of the oil are all saturated. |
1. |
Both I and II are correct and II correctly explains I |
2. |
Both I and II are correct but II does not correctly explain I |
3. |
I is correct but II is incorrect |
4. |
I is incorrect but II is correct |
21. Potato Spindle Tuber Disease is caused by a pathogen that is:
1. |
A nucleocapsid |
2. |
A low molecular weight free RNA |
3. |
An abnormally folded protein |
4. |
A protozoan |
22. In the given figure showing taxonomic hierarchy for living organisms:
I: |
A would be Solanum for potato. |
II: |
B would be Muscidae for housefly. |
III: |
C would be Primata for humans. |
IV: |
D would be phylum for animals and division for plants. |
1. Only
I,
II and
III are incorrect
2. Only
I,
III and
IV are incorrect
3. Only
II,
III and
IV are incorrect
4.
I,
II,
III and
IV are incorrect
23. Which of the following statements would be true for brown algae?
1. |
Major pigments are chlorophyll a, c and fucoxanthin. |
2. |
Food is stored as floridean starch. |
3. |
Vegetative cells have wall made of cellulose, pectin and polysulphate esters. |
4. |
Flagellar number and insertions are 2, equal and apical. |
24. The trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis is:
1. |
Acidic pH of stomach |
2. |
High temperature |
3. |
Alkaline pH of gut |
4. |
Mechanical action in the insect gut |
25. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
|
Column I
|
|
Column II
|
A.
|
Genetic diversity
|
a.
|
Western ghats have greater amphibian diversity than eastern ghats
|
B.
|
Species diversity
|
b.
|
India has more than 50000 genetically different strains of rice
|
C.
|
Ecological diversity
|
c.
|
India has more ecosystems than Norway
|
Codes :
|
A |
B |
C |
1. |
a |
b |
c |
2. |
b |
a |
c |
3. |
c |
b |
a |
4. |
b |
c |
a |
26. Name the British biochemist who received the Nobel Prize in Chemistry twice – once for determining the amino acid sequence of insulin and then for developing first-ever DNA sequencing technique:
1. Karl Barry Sharpless
2. John Bardeen
3. Frederick Sanger
4. Walter Gilbert
27. Cyclosporin A is used as a/an:
1. |
immuno-suppressive agent in organ transplant patients |
2. |
clot buster to remove clots from the vessels in heart attack patients |
3. |
treatment option in advance for HIV infections |
4. |
agent that lowers blood cholesterol levels |
28. The NADP reductase enzyme is located:
1. |
within the thylakoid membrane |
2. |
on the stroma side of the thylakoid membrane |
3. |
on the lumen side of the thylakoid membrane |
4. |
in the thylakoid lumen |
29. The protein synthesizing machinery of a cell has evolved around:
1. |
DNA |
2. |
RNA |
3. |
Protein itself |
4. |
Viroids |
30. A Prokaryotic cell lacks:
I: a membrane bound nucleus
II: membrane bound organelles
III: ribosomes
1. |
Only I and II |
2. |
Only I |
3. |
Only II and III |
4. |
Only III |
31. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
|
PGR |
Chemical nature |
1. |
Auxins |
Indole compounds |
2. |
Cytokinin |
Pyrimidine derivatives |
3. |
ABA |
Carotenoid derivative |
4. |
Gibberellic acid |
Terpenes |
32. A typical dicotyledonous embryo, consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons and where:
Statement I: |
The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the coleoptiles. |
Statement II: |
The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is the coleorhiza.
|
1.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is incorrect
2.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is correct
3.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is incorrect
4.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is correct
33. What is F2 phenotypic ratio in a dihybrid cross?
1. |
1 : 1 |
2. |
3 : 1 |
3. |
9 : 3 : 3 : 1 |
4. |
1 : 1 : 1: 1 |
34. A typical angiosperm embryosac, at maturity, is:
1. | 8 celled and 8 nucleate | 2. | 8 celled and 7 nucleate |
3. | 7 celled and 8 nucleate | 4. | 7 celled and 7 nucleate
|
35. Niche of an organism includes:
I: |
range of conditions that it can tolerate |
II: |
diversity in the resources it utilises |
III: |
its distinct functional role in the ecological system |
1. |
Only I |
2. |
Only III |
3. |
Only II and III |
4. |
I, II and III |
Biology I - Section B
36. Unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes, in gymnosperms:
I: |
there is development of ovule and later the seed |
II: |
pollen tubes carry male gametes to archegonia |
III: |
gametophytes do not have an independent free living existence |
1. |
Only I and II are correct |
2. |
Only I and III are correct |
3. |
Only II and III are correct |
4. |
I, II and III are correct |
37. In Sorghum:
1. |
Calvin cycle takes place in Mesophyll cells |
2. |
Initial carboxylation reaction occurs in Bundle sheath cells |
3. |
Number of carbon atoms in the primary carbon dioxide acceptor is 3 |
4. |
PGA is the primary carbon dioxide fixation product |
38. What would be true for the events shown in the given diagram?
I: |
A possible location where this could be happening is in the stroma lamellae. |
II: |
While the membrane or lamellae of the grana have both PS I and PS II, the stroma lamellae membranes lack PS II as well as NADP reductase enzyme. |
1. |
Only I |
2. |
Only II |
3. |
Both I and II |
4. |
Neither I nor II |
39. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): |
Most ecosystems would vanish if the sun were not, continuously, providing energy to the Earth. |
Reason (R): |
Ecosystems and living organisms defy second law of thermodynamics. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A). |
2. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
3. |
(A) is False but (R) is True. |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A). |
40. To isolate DNA from a cell, the cell wall needs to be broken. Match the enzymes in Column I with the type of cell in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:
|
Column I |
|
Column II |
A. |
Lysozyme |
P. |
Fungal cell |
B. |
Cellulase |
Q. |
Plant cell |
C. |
Chitinase |
R. |
Bacterial cell |
Codes:
|
A |
B |
C |
1. |
P |
Q |
R |
2. |
P |
R |
Q |
3. |
R |
P |
Q |
4. |
R |
Q |
P |
41. The source of complementary RNA for RNAi in a eukaryotic cell could be:
I: |
An infection by viruses having RNA genomes |
II: |
Mobile genetic elements that replicate via an RNA intermediate |
III: |
Integration of phage DNA into the main chromosomal DNA of a eukaryotic cell |
1. |
Only I and II |
2. |
Only I and III |
3. |
Only II and III |
4. |
I, II and III |
42. Match the class of fungi in Column I with representative examples in Column II and select the correct option:
|
Column I
|
|
Column II
|
A.
|
Phycomycetes
|
P.
|
Morels and truffles
|
B.
|
Ascomycetes
|
Q.
|
Alternaria, Trichoderma
|
C.
|
Basidiomycetes
|
R.
|
Bread mould and Albugo
|
D.
|
Deuteromycetes
|
S.
|
Smut and rust fungi
|
Codes:
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
1.
|
P
|
R
|
S
|
Q
|
2.
|
R
|
S
|
P
|
Q
|
3.
|
P
|
Q
|
R
|
S
|
4.
|
R
|
P
|
S
|
Q
|
43. How many of the following can be characterized as action of gibberellins on plants?
I: |
They can be used to increase the length of grape stalks. |
II: |
They can elongate and improve the shape of apple. |
III: |
They speed up malting process in brewing industry. |
IV: |
They hasten the maturity period of juvenile conifers. |
V: |
They promote bolting in many plants with rosette habit. |
44. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): |
For long DNA molecules, the replication occurs within a small opening of the DNA helix, referred to as the replication fork. |
Reason (R): |
The DNA polymerases on their own cannot initiate the process of replication. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
3. |
Both (A) and (R) are False. |
4. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
45. In conjoint type of vascular bundles:
I: |
xylem and phloem are jointly situated on the same radius of vascular bundles. |
II: |
xylem is usually located on the outer side of the phloem. |
1. Only I is correct |
2. Only II is correct |
3. Both are correct |
4. Both are incorrect |
47. The diagram shows the inflorescence scheme and the floral diagram of the family:
1. |
Liliaceae |
2. |
Gramineae |
3. |
Leguminosae |
4. |
Rosaceae |
48. During artificial hybridization in plant breeding experiments, if the female parent produces unisexual flowers:
1. |
Emasculation should be done before the dehiscence of the anther |
2. |
Emasculation should be done after the dehiscence of the anther |
3. |
Emasculation is not needed |
4. |
They cannot be used in plant breeding experiments |
49. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
|
Respiratory Complex |
Pathway for electron transport |
1. |
NADH dehydrogenase |
NADH – FMN – [Fe-S] – Q |
2. |
Succinic dehydrogenase |
FADH2 – FMN - Q |
3. |
Cytochrome bc1 |
Cyt b – [Fe-S] – Cyt c1 |
4. |
Cytochrome c oxidase |
CuA – Cyt a – Cyt a3 – CuB |
50. How does the bacterium protects its own DNA from the action of restriction endonucleases present in its cytoplasm?
1. |
its DNA lacks active sites for the restriction endonucleases |
2. |
its DNA is protected within a nuclear envelope |
3. |
it adds methyl groups to the active sites of restriction endonucleases on its DNA |
4. |
the DNA gets heterochromatised to prevent the action of restriction enzymes |
Biology II - Section A
51. What is transferred into the fallopian tube in ZIFT?
1. |
Zygote only |
2. |
Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres |
3. |
Zygote or embryos with up to 8 blastomeres |
4. |
All of the above can be transferred during ZIFT |
52. Consider the following statements regarding roundworms:
Statement I: |
Alimentary canal is complete with a well-developed muscular pharynx. |
Statement II: |
An excretory tube removes body wastes from the body cavity through the excretory pore. |
Statement III: |
They are dioecious and males are longer than females. |
The incorrect statement is/are:
1. |
Only Statement II |
2. |
Only Statement III |
3. |
Only Statement I and Statement II |
4. |
Only Statement II and Statement III |
53. Tendons and ligaments are examples of:
1. |
Loose connective tissue |
2. |
Dense irregular connective tissue |
3. |
Dense regular connective tissue |
4. |
Specialized connective tissue |
54. Consider the tow statements:
Assertion: |
Antibody mediated acquired immune response is called as humoral immune response. |
Reason: |
The antibodies are found in the blood. |
1. |
Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion. |
2. |
Assertion is true; Reason is false |
3. |
Assertion is false; Reason is true |
4. |
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason does not correctly explain the Assertion. |
55. Each time the sodium-potassium pump functions, it actively transports:
1. |
3 sodium ions outwards and 2 potassium ions into the cell. |
2. |
3 sodium ions into the cells and 2 potassium outwards. |
3. |
2 sodium ions outwards and 3 potassium ions into the cell. |
4. |
2 sodium ions into the cells and 3 potassium ions outwards. |
56. The correct sequence of male sex accessory ducts beginning from testis would be:
1. |
rete testis → vasa efferentia → epididymis → vas deferens |
2. |
rete testis → vas deferens → vasa efferentia → epididymis |
3. |
vas deferens → vasa efferentia → epididymis → rete testis |
4. |
vasa efferentia → vasa deferens → epididymis → rete testis |
57. Which of the following is not a feature of the double helix model of DNA?
1. |
The two chains have anti-parallel polarity |
2. |
A purine always comes opposite to a pyrimidine |
3. |
The pitch of the DNA is 3.4 nm |
4. |
The two chains are coiled in a left handed fashion |
58. Identify the incorrect statement:
1. |
Each limb in humans has 30 bones. |
2. |
Metacarpals are 8 in number while the metatarsals are 7 in number. |
3. |
Patella forms the knee cap. |
4. |
Femur is the longest bone in the human body. |
59. The component molecules of the cell membrane have two main parts, the head and the tail. These parts are either hydrophobic (repelled by water) or hydrophilic (attracted to water). Which is which?
1. |
Hydrophilic Head and Hydrophobic Tail |
2. |
Both Hydrophobic |
3. |
Hydrophilic Tail and Hydrophobic Head |
4. |
Both Hydrophilic |
60. Malignant tertian malaria is caused by Plasmodium:
1. |
vivax |
2. |
ovale |
3. |
falciparum |
4. |
malariae |
61. The beginning of diplotene is recognized by:
I: |
dissolution of the synaptonemal complex |
II: |
the tendency of recombined homologues of bivalents to separate |
III: |
tetrads becoming clearly visible |
1. |
Only I and II |
2. |
Only I and III |
3. |
Only II and III |
4. |
I, II, and III |
62. Chitin, a complex polysaccharide, is found in:
1. |
Plant cell wall |
2. |
The exoskeleton of arthropods and cell walls of most fungi |
3. |
Bacterial cell wall |
4. |
Cartilage and other connective tissues |
63. Some hormones can act on their target cells through second messengers. Identify the one that does not:
1. |
cortisol |
2. |
adrenaline |
3. |
FSH |
4. |
calcitonin |
64. A pyrimidine found uniquely in DNA is:
1. |
Uracil |
2. |
Thymine |
3. |
Cytosine |
4. |
Guanine |
65. Identify the incorrect statement:
1. |
Biodiversity is the term popularised by the sociobiologist Edward Wilson to describe the combined diversity at all levels of biological organisation. |
2. |
IUCN stands for International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural resources. |
3. |
Robert May places the global species diversity in the range of 20 to 50 million. |
4. |
More than 25 percent of the drugs currently sold in the market are derived from the plants. |
66. Which hormone is mainly secreted by the developing follicles during the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?
1. |
LH |
2. |
FSH |
3. |
Progesterone |
4. |
Estrogen |
67. Over 95 % of all transgenic animals are:
1. |
Mice |
2. |
Pigs |
3. |
Sheep |
4. |
Rabbits |
68. The wings of birds, the forelegs of a horse, and the upper limbs of humans are:
1. | analogous structures | 2. | homologous structures |
3. | vestigial structures | 4. | phylogenetic structures
|
69. What is the number of times that the human kidneys can maximally concentrate the initial filtrate?
70. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion: |
The ascending limb of loop of Henle is also called the diluting segment of the nephron.
|
Reason: |
In the ascending portion, the loop becomes impermeable to water and the cells of the loop actively reabsorb solutes from the luminal fluid. |
1. Assertion is true but Reason is false
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason correctly explains the Assertion
3. Assertion is false but Reason is true
4. Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason does not correctly explain the Assertion
71. Which of the following will not be equal in normal physiological conditions?
1. |
Partial pressure of oxygen in deoxygenated blood and partial pressure of oxygen in tissues |
2. |
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveoli and partial pressure of carbon dioxide in oxygenated blood |
3. |
Partial pressure of oxygen in oxygenated blood and partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli |
4. |
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in tissues and partial pressure of carbon dioxide in deoxygenated blood |
72. The first heart sound is heard during:
1. |
beginning of ventricular systole |
2. |
end of ventricular systole |
3. |
atrial systole |
4. |
ventricular ejection |
73. A male with genotype
AABBCC and a very dark complexion mates with a female with genotype
aabbcc and a very fair complexion. What is the probability of their progeny being born with an intermediate skin colour type?
1. |
6/64 |
2. |
15/64 |
3. |
20/64 |
4. |
1/64 |
74. Diabetes insipidus, characterized by water loss and dehydration, is caused by:
1. |
Hyposecretion of ADH |
2. |
Hypersecretion of ADH |
3. |
Hyposecretion of insulin |
4. |
Hypersecretion of insulin |
75. Regarding reproduction in Cyclostomes:
I: |
They are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water. |
II: |
After spawning, within a few days, they die. |
III: |
Their larvae, after metamorphosis, return to the ocean. |
1. Only
II is correct
2. Only
I and
II are correct
3. Only
II and
III are correct
4.
I,
II and
III are correct
76. Agrobacterium tumefaciens infects the plant through its:
1. |
Chromosomal DNA |
2. |
Complementary DNA |
3. |
F plasmid |
4. |
Ti plasmid |
77. For the stability of the organic compounds, Oparin opined that, probably:
1. |
UV radiation never reached the surface of the primeval Earth |
2. |
the primeval Earth was in a molten state |
3. |
the primeval Earth atmosphere was reducing rather than oxidizing |
4. |
plenty of energy sources were available for chemical reactions to occur |
78. Prior to the work of Avery, Macleod, and McCarty, the genetic material was thought to be:
1. |
DNA |
2. |
RNA |
3. |
Protein |
4. |
Nucleotide |
79. Which of the following IUDs is non-medicated?
1. |
Lippes loop |
2. |
Cu – T |
3. |
Cu – 7 |
4. |
LNG – 20 |
80. To prevent eryhtroblastosis fetalis in future pregnancies:
1. |
Anti-Rh Immunoglobulins must be given to Rh –ve mothers at the time of each delivery |
2. |
Anti-Rh Immunoglobulins must be given to new born at the time of each delivery |
3. |
Rh Antigens must be given to new born at the time of each delivery |
4. |
Anti Antigens must be given to Rh –ve mothers at the time of each delivery |
81. ATPase activity is found in:
1. |
Myosin head |
2. |
Myosin tail |
3. |
G-Actin |
4. |
Troponin |
82. As a part of their reproductive strategy, pelagic fishes:
1. |
Produce a large number of small-sized offspring |
2. |
Produce a small number of small-sized offspring |
3. |
Produce a large number of large-sized offspring |
4. |
Produce a small number of large-sized offspring |
83. What constitutes about 50% of the lymphoid tissue in the human body?
1. |
Malt |
2. |
Spleen |
3. |
Lymph nodes |
4. |
Liver |
84. Elution is:
1. |
separating the restricted DNA fragments on agarose gel |
2. |
staining the separated DNA fragments with ethidium bromide |
3. |
cutting out of the separated bands of DNA from the agarose gel and extracting them from the gel piece |
4. |
constructing rDNA by joining the purified DNA fragments to the cloning vector |
85. Morgan, in his experiment on fruit flies, found that the genes white and yellow were very tightly linked and showed:
1. | 50 % recombination | 2. | 37.2 % recombination |
3. | 12.5 % recombination | 4. | 1.3 % recombination
|
Biology II - Section B
86. The given figure shows stages in cross bridge formation, rotation of head and breaking of cross bridge during muscle contraction. Select the correct match for A, B and C from the codes given:
I. Sliding or rotation |
A |
II. Breaking of cross bridge |
B |
III. Formation of cross bridge |
C |
Codes:
|
I |
II |
III |
1. |
B |
A |
C |
2. |
B |
C |
A |
3. |
A |
B |
C |
4. |
C |
A |
B |
87. In a continuous culture system:
I: |
The used medium is drained out from one side while the fresh medium is added from the other. |
II: |
The cells are maintained in their physiologically most active log/exponential phase. |
III: |
A larger biomass is produced leading to higher yields of desired proteins. |
1. |
Only I and II are correct |
2. |
Only I and III are correct |
3. |
Only II and III are correct |
4. |
I, II and III are correct |
88. In the given diagrammatic representation of internal organs of a frog showing the complete digestive system, identify I, II, III, IV:
|
I |
II |
III |
IV |
1. |
Oesophagus |
Liver |
Gall bladder |
Fat bodies |
2. |
Pharynx |
Liver |
Gall bladder |
Uricose glands |
3. |
Buccal cavity |
Gall bladder |
Liver |
Antennal glands |
4. |
Oesophagus |
Gall bladder |
Liver |
Fat bodies |
89. Consider the following statements:
I: |
Impulses travel by the visceral nervous system from the CNS to the viscera and from the viscera to the CNS. |
II: |
Impulses travel by the autonomic nervous system from the CNS to the involuntary organs and smooth muscles of the body. |
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
90. Identify the correct statements:
I: |
Each kidney of an adult human measures 10-12 cm in length, 5-7 cm in width and 2-3 cm in thickness. |
II: |
The DCTs of many nephrons open into a straight tube called collecting duct. |
III: |
Each nephron has two parts – the glomerulus and the renal tubule. |
IV: |
The renal tubule begins with the proximal convoluted tubule. |
1. |
Only I and II |
2. |
Only I, II and III |
3. |
Only II and III |
4. |
I, II, III and IV |
91. Consider the given statements:
I: |
Where a single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic expressions, such a gene is called a pleiotropic gene. |
II: |
The underlying mechanism of pleiotropy in most cases is the effect of a gene on metabolic pathways which contribute towards different phenotypes. |
III: |
Phenylketonuria is caused by a defect in the gene that codes for the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase and manifests itself through phenotypic expression characterised by mental retardation and a reduction in hair and skin pigmentation. |
1. |
Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct, Statement III is incorrect. |
2. |
Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct, Statement III is incorrect. |
3. |
Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect, Statement III is correct. |
4. |
Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct, Statement III is correct. |
92. Consider the two statements:
Assertion (A): |
Heart failure is sometimes called congestive heart failure. |
Reason (R): |
Heart failure means the state of heart when it is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A). |
2. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
3. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A). |
4. |
(A) is False but (R) is True. |
93. In Amphibia:
I: |
Skin is moist without scales |
II: |
A tympanum represents the ear |
III: |
Fertilization is external |
1. |
Only I and II are correct |
2. |
Only I and III are correct |
3. |
Only II and III are correct |
4. |
I, II, and III are correct |
94. The duration of inspiration can be reduced by:
1. |
an increase of carbon dioxide in blood |
2. |
a chemical signal from aortic and carotid bodies |
3. |
a neural signal from pneumotaxic center |
4. |
an increase in hydrogen ion concentration in CSF |
95. Consider the following statements:
I: |
All the reference point while defining a transcription unit is made with the coding strand. |
II: |
It is the presence of a promoter in a transcription unit that also defines the template and coding strands. |
III: |
Exons are said to be sequences that do not appear in mature or processed RNA. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. |
I and II only |
2. |
I and III only |
3. |
II and III only |
4. |
I, II, and III |
96. Identify A-F in the figure showing the representative evolutionary history of vertebrates through geological periods:
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
E |
F |
1. |
Thecodonts |
Sauropsids |
Therapsids |
Synapsids |
Pelycosaurs |
Dinosaurs |
2. |
Synapsids |
Pelycosaurs |
Sauropsids |
Dinosaurs |
Therapsids |
Thecodonts |
3. |
Sauropsids |
Synapsids |
Pelycosaurs |
Thecodonts |
Therapsids |
Dinosaurs |
4. |
Therapsids |
Synapsids |
Pelycosaurs |
Dinosaurs |
Sauropsids |
Thecodonts |
97. Gene cloning occurs:
1. |
when a phage transfers bacterial DNA from one bacterium to another. |
2. |
when a bacterium takes up DNA from the surrounding fluid. |
3. |
when a bacterium carrying a recombinant plasmid reproduces, thus allowing for the production of multiple copies of the recombinant plasmid. |
4. |
when DNA is produced from an RNA template. |
98. Consider the given statements regarding competition amongst organisms:
I: |
Only related species can compete for the same resource |
II: |
Competition occurs only when the resources are limiting |
The correct statement/s is/are:
1. |
I alone |
2. |
II alone |
3. |
Both I and II |
4. |
Neither I nor II |
99. The signals of fetal ejection reflex originate from:
1. Maternal pituitary
2. Maternal hypothalamus
3. Fully developed fetus and placenta
4. Fetal pituitary
100. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): |
Biological response modifiers like alpha interferon can help detection and destruction of tumour cells by the
immune system. |
Reason (R): |
Such biological response modifiers activate the immune system of the patient. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are False. |
3. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A). |
4. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
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