Biology Prodigy Test #8 (Full Syllabus)

Botany - Section A

1.

What percentage of total oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere is produced by Amazon rainforest through photosynthesis?

1.	50	2.	40
3.	30	4.	20

2.

Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit?

1.	Dependent sporophyte	2.	Heterospory
3.	Halplontic life cycle	4.	Free-living gametophyte

3.

E. coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac operon cannot grow in a medium containing only lactose as the source of energy because-

1.	They cannot synthesize functional beta-galactosidase
2.	They cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell
3.	The lac operon is constitutively active in these cells
4.	In the presence of glucose, E. coli cells do not utilize lactose

4.

In a population of 1000 individuals, 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is:

1.	0.4	2.	0.5
3.	0.6	4.	0.7

5. All the following are floral characteristics of plants belonging to the Gramineae family except:
1. Flowers are characteristically arranged in spikelets
2. The flowers are usually unisexual
3. The perianth is reduced to two scales, called lodicules
4. The fruit is a caryopsis

6.

In conjoint type of vascular bundles:

I:	xylem and phloem are jointly situated on the same radius of vascular bundles.
II:	xylem is usually located on the outer side of the phloem.

1.	Only I is correct	2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both are correct	4.	Both are incorrect

7.

Cellular totipotency is demonstrated by:

1.	Only gymnosperm cells	2.	All plant cells
3.	All eukaryotic cells	4.	Only bacterial cells

8. Study the given diagram and select the correct statements:

I:	It is racemose inflorescence.
II:	A is older flower and B is younger flower.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

9. Transverse section of a plant part shows conjoint and open vascular bundles. The transverse section is of:

1.	monocot root	2.	monocot stem
3.	dicot root	4.	dicot stem

10. Consider the given statements:

Assertion (A):	On one strand the replication of DNA is continuous, while on the other, it is discontinuous.
Reason (R):	The discontinuously synthesised fragments are later joined by the enzyme DNA ligase.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

11. The infectious agent that causes potato spindle tuber disease is:

1.	a free RNA lacking a protein coat
2.	a nucleocapsid
3.	an abnormally folded protein
4.	a ribozyme

12.

Apomixis is:

I:	production of seeds without fertilization
II:	production of fruits without fertilization
III:	a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I is correct
3. Only III is correct
4. Only I and III are correct

13.

In a test cross, the plant expressing the dominant phenotype is crossed with the plant:

1.	Which is heterozygous dominant
2.	Which is heterozygous recessive
3.	Which is homozygous recessive
4.	Which is homozygous dominant

14. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Evolution is not a directed process in the sense of determinism.
Reason (R):	It is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance mutation in the organisms.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

15.

The correct chronological sequence [beginning from the earliest] with respect to fungal sexual cycle will be:
1. Karyogamy, Plasmogamy and Meiosis
2. Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy
3. Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis
4. Meiosis, Karyogamy and Plasmogamy

16.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Genetic diversity	a.	Western ghats have greater amphibian diversity than eastern ghats
B.	Species diversity	b.	India has more than 50000 genetically different strains of rice
C.	Ecological diversity	c.	India has more ecosystems than Norway

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	a	b	c
2.	b	a	c
3.	c	b	a
4.	b	c	a

17. The true macromolecular fraction of any living tissue or cell includes all the following biomolecules except:

1.	Nucleic acids	2.	Polysaccharides
3.	Lipids	4.	Proteins

18.

The term 'polyadelphous' is related to?

1.	gynoecium	2.	androecium
3.	corolla	4.	calyx

19. Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers is called as:
1. Gross primary productivity
2. Net primary productivity
3. Secondary productivity
4. Tertiary productivity

20. Regarding Endoplasmic reticulum in a eukaryotic cell:

I:	SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
II:	RER has ribosomes attached to ER
III:	In prokaryotes, only RER are present

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

21. Regarding plant growth regulators:

I:	Auxins are plant growth promoters
II:	ABA is a plant growth inhibitor
III:	Ethylene is largely an inhibitor of growth activities

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

22.

Diatomaceous earth is used as a heat insulator in boilers and steam pipes because the cell wall of diatom is
1. Composed of iron
2. Composed of silicon dioxide
3. a good conductor of heat
4. a bad conductor of electricity

23. In eukaryotes, during post-transcriptional modification of hnRNA:

1.	methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5’ end and adenylate residues are added at the 3‘ end
2.	methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3’ end and adenylate residues are added at the 5‘ end
3.	methyl adenosine triphosphate is added to the 5’ end and guanylate residues are added at the 3‘ end
4.	methyl adenosine triphosphate is added to the 3’ end and guanylate residues are added at the 5‘ end

24. The homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres in:

1.	Metaphase I of Meiosis I
2.	Anaphase I of Meiosis I
3.	Metaphase II of Meiosis II
4.	Anaphase II of Meiosis II

25.

A piece of DNA, somehow transferred into an alien organism, will be able to multiply itself in the progeny cells of organism if:

1.	It includes the centromere
2.	It becomes a part of chromosome
3.	It does not contain any intron sequences
4.	It is a single stranded polynucleotide

26.

Regeneration of damaged growing grass following grazing is largely due to:

1.	Lateral meristem	2.	Apical meristem
3.	Intercalary meristem	4.	Secondary meristem

27. Fucoxanthin is an important pigment in:
1. Red algae
2. Blue-green algae
3. Green algae
4. Brown algae

28.

Which one of the following fruits is parthenocarpic?
1. Brinjal
2. Apple
3. Jackfruit
4. Banana

29. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	Iodine test can detect the presence of starch but not of cellulose in a given sample.
Statement II:	Starch forms helical secondary structure and can hold iodine molecules while cellulose does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine.

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II correctly explains Statement I
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not correctly explain Statement I
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

30.

That viruses could be crystallised and crystals consist largely of proteins was shown by:
1. M. W. Beijerinck
2. W. M. Stanley
3. Dmitri Ivanovsky
4. Louis Pasteur

31. In chloroplast, the highest number of protons are found in?

1.	lumen of thylakoids	2.	intermembrane space
3.	antennae complex	4.	stroma

32.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding experiments on Pisum sativum by Gregor Mendel:

1.	He conducted hybridisation experiments on garden peas for seven years (1856-1863) and proposed the laws of inheritance in living organisms.
2.	It was for the first time that statistical analysis and mathematical logic were applied to problems in biology.
3.	Unfortunately his experiments had a small sampling size, which gave less credibility to the data that he collected.
4.	He investigated characters in the garden pea plant that were manifested as two opposing traits.

33.

The phenomenon wherein, the ovary develops into a fruit without fertilisation is called:

1.	Parthenocarpy	2.	Apomixis
3.	Asexual reproduction	4.	Sexual reproduction

34. Identify the correct statement related to Pollination:

1.	Water is the most important pollinating agent for angiosperms
2.	Pollination by water is seen in all aquatic ﬂowering plants
3.	Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination
4.	Very few flowers are pollinated by insects

35. Consider the given statements:

I:	Where a single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic expressions, such a gene is called a pleiotropic gene.
II:	The underlying mechanism of pleiotropy in most cases is the effect of a gene on metabolic pathways which contribute towards different phenotypes.
III:	Phenylketonuria is caused by a defect in the gene that codes for the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase and manifests itself through phenotypic expression characterised by mental retardation and a reduction in hair and skin pigmentation.

1.	Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct, Statement III is incorrect.
2.	Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct, Statement III is incorrect.
3.	Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect, Statement III is correct.
4.	Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct, Statement III is correct.

Botany - Section B

36. The total number of ATP molecules produced when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid is:

1.	Eight	2.	Four
3.	Six	4.	Two

37.

Consider the transcription unit given in the following diagram and choose the correct statements:

I:	The promoter on the template is situated upstream and 5’ to the structural gene.
II:	It is the presence of the structural gene that defines the template strand.
III:	The coding strand does not code for anything and is displaced during transcription.

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

38. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	The Golgi apparatus, also known as the Golgi body, is like a post office.
Reason (R):	The Golgi apparatus is an important site for the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

39. All the following are members of family Malvaceae except:

1.	Gossypium species	2.	Abelmoschus esculentus
3.	Arabidopsis thaliana	4.	Hibiscus rosa-sinensis

40.

A donor DNA and plasmid vector DNA of E. coli are cut by EcoRI. The plasmid contains genes for resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The ECoRI recognition sequence lies within the gene for tetracycline resistance. Ligase is used, and the recombinant DNA is produced. The plasmids are transferred to E.coli with the help of electroporation. Samples of the bacterial colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient medium plus ampicillin, nutrient medium plus tetracycline, nutrient medium plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient medium without antibiotics. Non-recombinant transformants will grow on:

1.	the nutrient medium plus ampicillin, but not on the medium containing tetracycline.
2.	only on the medium containing both antibiotics.
3.	on the medium containing tetracycline, but not on the medium containing ampicillin.
4.	on all four types of mediums.

41.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The roots hair are unicellular and arise from the region of maturation.
II:	Terminal buds of stems may get modified to thorns.
III:	Leaves originate from shoot apical meristem and are arranged in an acropetal order.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

42.

In the dicot root, the vascular cambium originates from:

1.	Tissue located below the phloem bundles and a portion of pericycle tissue above protoxylem
2.	Cortical region
3.	Parenchyma between endodermis and pericycle
4.	Intrafascicular and interfascicular tissue in a ring

43. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Most ecosystems would vanish if the sun were not, continuously, providing energy to the Earth.
Reason (R):	Ecosystems and living organisms defy second law of thermodynamics.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).

44.

The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on:

1.	Bacterial virus	2.	Bacterium
3.	Fungus	4.	Viroid

45.

In the exponential growth equation N_t =N₀e^rt, e represents :
1. The base of natural logarithms
2. The base of geometric logarithms
3. The base of number logarithms
4. The base of exponential logarithms

46.

In order to find out the different types of gametes produced by a pea plant having the genotype AaBb, it should be crossed to a plant with the genotype:

1.	AaBb	2.	aabb
3.	AABB	4.	aaBB

47.

Domestic sewage in large cities:

1.	is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage Treatment Plant (STPs)
2.	when treated in STPs, does not require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate oxygen
3.	has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts
4.	has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

48. Organisms belonging to the same Class in taxonomic hierarchy must also belong to the same:

1.	Order	2.	Family
3.	Genus	4.	Phylum

49. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	C₄ plants are more suited to hot climates than C₃ plants.
Reason(R):	They do not close their stomata in hot, dry weather.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True

50.

What is the function of germ pores?
1. Absorption of water for seed germination
2. Initiation of pollen tube
3. Release of male gametes
4. The emergence of radicle

Zoology - Section A

51. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	For long DNA molecules, the replication occurs within a small opening of the DNA helix, referred to as the replication fork.
Reason (R):	The DNA polymerases on their own cannot initiate the process of replication.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

52. All bacterial cells are:

1.	motile.
2.	enclosed by peptidoglycan cell wall.
3.	prokaryotic.
4.	capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen.

53.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A):	The skin of a frog is always kept moist and has a mucus covering.
Reason (R):	Frogs respire through the skin as well.

In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

54.

Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications at the location of their contact between:
1. Efferent arteriole and DCT
2. Afferent arteriole and PCT
3. Afferent arteriole and DCT
4. Efferent arteriole and PCT

55.

What would not be true for cyclostomes?

1.	All are endoparasites on some fishes.
2.	They have aa circular mouth without jaw.
3.	Body is devoid of scales and paired fins.
4.	Circulation is of closed type.

56.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding phenylketonuria:

1.	It is an inborn error of metabolism inherited as the autosomal recessive trait.
2.	The affected individual lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acid tyrosine into phenylalanine.
3.	Accumulation of phenyl pyruvic acid in the brain results in mental retardation.
4.	Phenylpyruvic acid is also excreted through urine because of its poor absorption by the kidney.

57.

The contraction of external inter-costal muscles:

1.	lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis.
2.	lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis.
3.	depresses the ribs and the sternum causing a decrease in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis.
4.	depresses the ribs and the sternum causing a decrease in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis.

58. Forebrain in frogs does not include:

1.	olfactory lobes
2.	paired cerebral hemispheres
3.	unpaired diencephalon
4.	a pair of optic lobes

59.

All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates, why?

1.	Notochord is replaced by a vertebral column in the adults of some chordates.
2.	The ventral hollow nerve cord remains throughout life in some chordates.
3.	All chordates possess a vertebral column.
4.	All chordates possess notochords throughout their lives.

60.

Menstrual flow occurs due to the lack of:
1. FSH
2. Oxytocin
3. Vasopressin
4. Progesterone

61. A blood cholesterol lowering agent can be isolated from:

1.	Trichoderma polysporum	2.	Trichoderma harzianum
3.	Monascus purpureus	4.	Penicillium notatum

62.

There are 8 and 7 bones respectively in:

1.	tarsal [ankle] and carpal [wrist]
2.	carpal[wrist] and tarsal[ankle]
3.	neurocranium and facial skeleton
4.	facial skeleton and neurocranium

63. In a growing population of a country:

1.	pre-reproductive individuals are more than reproductive individuals.
2.	reproductive individuals are less than post-reproductive individuals.
3.	reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.
4.	pre-reproductive individuals are less than reproductive individuals.

64. The first and the second heart sounds are produced respectively by:

1.	the closure of the atrioventricular and the opening of the semilunar valves
2.	the opening of the atrioventricular and the closure of the semilunar valves
3.	the closure of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves
4.	the opening of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves

65.

In the given diagram, the part of the female reproductive system that undergoes cyclical changes with changes in the secretion of gonadotropins and gonadal steroids during the menstrual cycle is represented by:

1.	A	2.	B
3.	C	4.	D

66.

Contraction in gall is bladder is stimulated by:

1.	CCK	2.	PZ
3.	Secretin	4.	Enterogastrone

67.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Innate immunity is a non-specific type of defense that is present at the time of birth.
II:	Acquired immunity is pathogen-specific and is characterized by memory.
III:	Memory-based acquired immunity developed in higher vertebrates based on the ability to distinguish self from non-self.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

68. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, enacted by the government of India provides:

I:	A pregnancy may be terminated on certain considered grounds within the first 12 weeks of pregnancy on the opinion of one registered medical practitioner.
II:	If the pregnancy has lasted more than 12 weeks, but fewer than 24 weeks, two registered medical practitioners must be of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the required ground exist.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

69.

Alexander Von Humboldt described for the first time:
1. Laws of limiting factor
2. Species-Area relationships
3. Population Growth equations
4. Ecological Biodiversity

70. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes.
2.	The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water but allows transport of electrolytes actively or passively.
3.	DCT is capable of reabsorption of bicarbonate ions and selective secretion of hydrogen and potassium ions and ammonia to maintain the pH and electrolyte balance in the body.
4.	PCT does not play any role in reabsorption of bicarbonate ions and selective secretion of hydrogen and ammonia to maintain the pH and electrolyte balance in the body.

71.

Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?

1.	Aldosterone and Prolactin
2.	Progesterone and Aldosterone
3.	Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
4.	Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin

72. Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England proposed that:

I:	The first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules (e.g. RNA, protein, etc.)
II:	The formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution, i.e., the formation of diverse organic molecules from inorganic constituents.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

73. Regarding methodologies used in sequencing human genome:

I:	Identifying all the genes that are expressed as RNA is referred to as Expressed Sequence Tags.
II:	The blind approach of simply sequencing the whole set of genome that contained all the coding and non-coding sequence, and later assigning different regions in the sequence with functions is referred to as Sequence Annotation.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

74. Consider the two given statements:

I:	Pulmonary circulation carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs and brings oxygenated blood back to the heart.
II:	The systemic circulation provides nutrients, oxygen and other essential substances to the tissues and takes carbon dioxide and other harmful substances away for elimination.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

75.

In bacteria, the plasmid is:
1. Extrachromosomal material
2. Main DNA
3. Non-functional DNA
4. Repetitive gene

76. A Prokaryotic cell lacks:
I: a membrane bound nucleus
II: membrane bound organelles
III: ribosomes

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I
3.	Only II and III	4.	Only III

77. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	The alimentary canal in frog is short.
Reason (R):	Frog is a herbivore.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not explain (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True

78.

A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfil all the following criteria except:

1.	It should be able to generate its replica
2.	It should chemically and structurally be stable
3.	It should provide scope for rapid mutations
4.	It should be able to express itself in the form of “Mendelian Characters”

79.

Which of the following IUDs is non-medicated?

1.	Lippes loop	2.	Cu – T
3.	Cu – 7	4.	LNG – 20

80. Which stage of sewage water treatment is essentially a ‘biological’ treatment?
1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Tertiary
4. Quaternary

81. Regarding reproduction in Cyclostomes:

I:	They are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.
II:	After spawning, within a few days, they die.
III:	Their larvae, after metamorphosis, return to the ocean.

1.	Only II is correct
2.	Only I and II are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

82. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by:

1.	phosphodiester bonds	2.	covalent bonds
3.	disulphide bridges	4.	hydrogen bonds

83.

The infectious stage of plasmodium that enters the human body is:
1. Sporozoites
2. Female gametocytes
3. Male gametocytes
4. Trophozoites

84.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

	Column I		Column II
A	Zygotene	a	Pairing of homologous chromosomes
B	Pachytene	b	Appearance of chiasma
C	Diplotene	c	Terminalization of chiasma
D	Diakinesis	d	Crossing over

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	a	c	b	d
2.	a	d	b	c
3.	a	b	c	d
4.	b	c	d	a

85. Cirrhosis of liver is a dangerous complication commonly associated with chronic abuse of:

1.	Morphine	2.	Cannabinoids
3.	Alcohol	4.	Atropine

Zoology - Section B

86.

Identify the correct statements from the following:

I:	ANF is secreted by the right atrium of heart and causes vasodilation
II:	Erythropoietin is secreted by kidney and stimulates bone marrow to produce RBC
III:	Insulin-like growth factors are secreted by liver and play an important role in childhood growth, and has anabolic effects in adults

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II and III

87.

Restriction enzymes produced by some bacteria:

1.	cleave phosphodiester bond in the main chromosomal DNA of the bacterium.
2.	cut single stranded DNA at random positions.
3.	prevent the multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria.
4.	provide resistance against antibiotics.

88.

In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals. Identify the type of given pedigree:

1. Autosomal dominant
2. X-linked recessive
3. Autosomal recessive
4. X-linked dominant

89. The larvae that emerge from the eggs, known as tadpoles:

I:	lack eyelids and limbs
II:	have cartilaginous skeletons
III:	use gills for respiration
IV:	have tails

1. Only I, II and III are correct
2. Only I, III and IV are correct
3. Only II, III and IV are correct
4. I, II, III and IV are correct

90.

Study the diagram given and choose the correct statement:

1.	A: Retrovirus replicates outside the cell
2.	B: Viral DNA is produced by the host's enzyme - reverse transcriptase
3.	C: Viral DNA incorporates into the host genome
4.	D: New viral DNA is produced by the infected cell

91.

What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?

1.	125 beats per minute	2.	50 beats per minute
3.	75 beats per minute	4.	100 beats per minute

92. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	Hemichordata was earlier considered as a sub-phylum under non-chordata but now it is placed as a separate Class under Chordata.
Reason (R):	Hemichordates have a rudimentary structure in the collar region called stomochord, a structure homologous to notochord.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

93. Select the incorrect statement:

1.	Expiration occurs due to contraction of internal intercostal muscles.
2.	Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure during inspiration.
3.	The contraction of diaphragm increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in dorso-ventral axis.
4.	Inspiration is initiated due to the contraction of the diaphragm.

94.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Phase of meiosis I]		Column II [Key event]
A	Metaphase I	P	The chromosomes align at the equator and the microtubules from opposite poles of the spindle get attached to the kinetochores of sister chromatids.
B	Anaphase I	Q	The bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate.
C	Telophase I	R	Splitting of centromere.
		S	Homologous chromosomes separate
		T	Nuclear membrane reappears

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	P	Q	R
2.	Q	S	T
3.	Q	R	T
4.	P	S	T

95. The extinct reptilian lineage that evolved into dinosaurs and later on the birds is:

1.	Pelycosaurs	2.	Synapsids
3.	Tuataras	4.	Thecodonts

96. The source of complementary RNA for RNAi in a eukaryotic cell could be:

I:	An infection by viruses having RNA genomes
II:	Mobile genetic elements that replicate via an RNA intermediate
III:	Integration of phage DNA into the main chromosomal DNA of a eukaryotic cell

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II and III

97.

Glenoid cavity articulates:

1.	clavicle with acromion	2.	scapula with acromion
3.	clavicle with scapula	4.	humerus with scapula

98. Consider the given two statements:

Statement 1:	Certain amino acids are essential for our health.
Statement 2:	Only such amino acids are used to make proteins in our body according to our own genetic code.

1.	Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 correctly explains Statement 1
2.	Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 does not correctly explain Statement 1
3.	Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect
4.	Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct

99.

Match each item in Column I [part of the brain] with one in Column II [function] and select the answer from the codes given below:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Amygdala	a.	Relays motor and sensory signals to the cerebral cortex
B.	Hippocampus	b.	Reflex centers involving vision and hearing
C.	Thalamus	c.	Plays a key role in the processing of emotions
D.	Corpora quadrigemina	d.	Formation of new memories and is also associated with learning and emotions

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	c	d	b	a
2.	d	c	a	b
3.	c	d	a	b
4.	d	c	b	a

100.

Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are?

1.	hCG, hPL, progesterone, prolactin
2.	hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
3.	hCG, hPL, progesterone, estrogens
4.	hCG, progesterone, estrogens, glucocorticoids

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