Biology Prodigy Test #11 (Full Syllabus)

Botany - Section A

1. Bicarpellary ovary with obliquely placed septum is seen in:

1.	Brassica	2.	Aloe
3.	Solanum	4.	Sesbania

2.

What is not true regarding sexual reproduction in basidiomycetes?

1.	Sex organs are well developed
2.	Plasmogamy is brought about by fusion of two vegetative or somatic cells of different strains or genotypes
3.	Karyogamy and meiosis take place in basidium, producing four basidiospores
4.	Basidiospores are produced exogenously on the basidium

3.

For a biocontrol agent to be part of an integrated pest management, it should be:

1.	species-specific and symbiotic
2.	free living and broad spectrum
3.	narrow spectrum and symbiotic
4.	species-specific and inactive on non-target organisms

4.

Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	As compared to the bryophytes, pteridophytes have sporophyte as the main plant body
2.	Pteridophyte sporophyte has well differentiated true roots, stem and leaves
3.	Selaginella has macrophylls like ferns
4.	In sporophyte of ferns, leaf-like appendages called sporophylls subtend sporangia

5. Plasmid pBR322 has a PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain:

1.	it will lead to the lysis of host cells.
2.	it will be able to produce a novel protein with dual abilities.
3.	it will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
4.	the transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce β-galactoside.

6.

Study the pathway given below:

In which of the following options, correct words for all the three blanks A, B and C are indicated?

	A	B	C
1.	Fixation	Transamination	Regeneration
2.	Fixation	Decarboxylation	Regeneration
3.	Carboxylation	Decarboxylation	Reduction
4.	Decarboxylation	Reduction	Regeneration

7. Mesosomes, extensions of plasma membrane into the cell, help bacterium in all the following processes except:
1. Photosynthesis in cyanobacteria
2. Respiration
3. DNA replication
4. Cell wall formation

8. The given floral formula represents plants belonging to the family:

1.	Gramineae	2.	Malvaceae
3.	Cruciferae	4.	Leguminosae

9.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	Mycoplasma are naturally resistant to antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis
II:	They are the smallest bacteria discovered yet

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. Both I and II are incorrect

10.

Casparian strips occur in?
1. Epidermis
2. Pericycle
3. Cortex
4. Endodermis

11. Correct position of ﬂoral parts over thalamus in the guava plant is:

1.	Gynoecium occupies the highest position, while the other parts are situated below it.
2.	Margin of the thalamus grows upward, enclosing the ovary completely, and other parts arise above the ovary.
3.	Gynoecium is present in the center and other parts cover it partially.
4.	Gynoecium is situated in the center, and other parts of the ﬂower are located at the rim of the thalamus, at the same level.

12. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Bulliform cells	P	Phloem tissue in angiosperms
B	Lenticels	Q	Phloem tissue in gymnosperms
C	Albuminous cells	R	Folding and unfolding of leaf tissue
		S	Exchange of gases

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	S	R	Q
2.	S	R	Q
3.	R	S	P
4.	R	S	Q

13.

The bacteriophage φ × 174 has:
1. 5386 nucleotides
2. 48502 base pairs
3. 4.6 × 10⁶ base pairs
4. 3.3 × 10⁹ base pairs

14.

A high value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicates that:

1.	water is pure
2.	water is highly polluted
3.	water is less polluted
4.	consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes

15.

Double fertilization is:

1.	Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs
2.	Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
3.	Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
4.	Syngamy and triple fusion

16.

Consider the following statements:
The rate of decomposition is high if:

I:	The detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
II:	The detritus is rich in nitrogen and sugars.
III:	The environmental conditions are warm and moist.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

17.

Root hairs at the root tip are formed by:

1.	Epidermal cells in the region of maturation
2.	Cortical cells in the region of elongation
3.	Epidermal cells in the region of elongation
4.	Cortical cells in the region of maturation

18. In lac operon, lac y gene codes for:
1. β−galactosidase
2. Permease
3. Repressor
4. Transacetylase

19.

Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and chose your answer from the codes given below:

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Alkaloid	(i)	Abrin
(b)	Toxin	(ii)	Morphine
(c)	Lectin	(iii)	Vinblastin
(d)	Drug	(iv)	Concanavalin A

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
2.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
3.	(ii)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)
4.	(i)	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)

20.

Which of the following stages of Prophase I of meiosis I can last for many months or years in certain vertebrate oocytes?

1.	Zygotene	2.	Pachytene
3.	Diplotene	4.	Diakinesis

21.

In order to increase the yield of sugarcane crops, which of the following plant growth regulators should be sprayed?

1.	Ethylene	2.	Auxins
3.	Gibberellins	4.	Cytokinins

22. In gymnosperms:

1.	gametophytes have an independent free-living existence
2.	pollen grains are transported by water
3.	pollen tubes are not seen
4.	seeds are not covered

23.

In the logistic growth equation given below, the carrying capacity is represented by:
\(\frac{\mathrm{dN}}{\mathrm{dt}}=\mathrm{rN}\left(\frac{\mathrm{K}-\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{K}}\right)\)

1.	N	2.	r
3.	K	4.	K – N / K

24. At maturity, the female gametophyte in angiosperms has:

I:	Three cells grouped together at the micropylar end constituting the egg apparatus
II:	Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the antipodals

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

25. Tetracycline resistance gene in the vector pBR322 carries the recognition sequence for:
1. PstI
2. PvuII
3. BamH I
4. EcoR I

26. Which of the following secondary metabolites is a carbohydrate-binding protein [Lectin]?
1. Abrin
2. Vinblastin
3. Curcumin
4. Concanavalin A

27. The biodiversity hotspots in India include all the following except:
1. Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
2. Indo-Burma
3. Himalayas
4. Deccan plateau

28. Match the name of the scientist in Column I with his contribution in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Julius von Sachs	P.	O₂evolved by the green plant comes from H₂O
B.	T.W. Engelmann	Q.	Glucose is usually stored as starch by plants
C.	Cornelius van Niel	R.	Sunlight is essential for photosynthesis
D.	Jan Ingenhousz	S.	First action spectrum of photosynthesis

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	S	P	R
2.	Q	R	P	S
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	P	S	R	Q

29. All the following produce secondary tissues in a plant body except:
1. Fascicular vascular cambium
2. Interfascicular cambium
3. Cork-cambium
4. Intercalary meristem

30. In general, the embryo sac in angiosperm consists of:

1.	One egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal cells, two Polar nuclei
2.	One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal cells, three Polar nuclei
3.	One egg cell, three synergids, two antipodal cells, two Polar nuclei
4.	One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal cells, two Polar nuclei

31.

Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Plant cells possess cell walls, plastids and a large central vacuole which are absent in animal cells.
Statement II:	Animal cells have centrioles which are absent in almost all plant cells.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

32.

The role of an adapter molecule in the translation of genetic information is performed by:
1. miRNA
2. hnRNA
3. tRNA
4. siRNA

33. The exponential growth of an organism or a part of an organism can be expressed as W₁ = W₀ e^rt, where e is:

1.	final size (weight, height, number etc.)
2.	initial size at the beginning of the period
3.	growth rate
4.	base of natural logarithms

34.

Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?

1.	Hydrilla	2.	Yucca
3.	Banana	4.	Viola

35.

In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as pro-toxin is converted into active toxin due to:

1. alkaline pH of the insect gut
2. acidic pH of the insect gut
3. action of gut microorganisms
4. presence of conversion factors in the insect gut

Botany - Section B

36.

Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	The broadly utilitarian argument for conserving biodiversity says that humans derive countless direct economic benefits from nature.
Statement II:	The ethical argument for conserving biodiversity says that biodiversity plays a major role in many ecosystem services that nature provides.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

37. The leafy stage in the life cycle of mosses:

1.	is a stage of the sporophytic generation.
2.	is a creeping, green, branched and frequently filamentous stage.
3.	develops directly from a spore.
4.	bears sex organs.

38.

In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a nitrogenous base is linked to the –OH of:

1.	2'C pentose sugar	2.	3'C pentose sugar
3.	5'C pentose sugar	4.	1'C pentose sugar

39.

Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Carbon dioxide is not produced in glycolysis.
Reason (R):	Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that does not require oxygen.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and but (R) does not correctly explain (R)
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True

40. The middle lamella of a typical plant cell:

I:	mainly consists of calcium carbonate
II:	holds or glues the different neighbouring cells together
III:	is not traversed by plasmodesmata

1.	Only II is correct
2.	Only I is incorrect
3.	I, II and III are incorrect
4.	Only II and III are correct

41. Which step in the decomposition of detritus is carried out by bacteria and fungi?

1.	fragmentation	2.	leaching
3.	catabolism	4.	mineralisation

42.

The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is:

1.	Pachytene	2.	Diplotene
3.	Diakinesis	4.	Zygotene

43.

After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in?

1.	Neurospora	2.	Alternaria
3.	Agaricus	4.	Saccharomyces

44.

In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons are used to code for all the 20 essential amino acids:

1.	20	2.	64
3.	61	4.	60

45.

The given transverse section is of:

1.	Monocot stem	2.	Dicot stem
3.	Monocot root	4.	Dicot root

46.

According to Darwin, organic evolution is due to:

1.	Interspecific competition.
2.	Competition within closely related species.
3.	Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species.
4.	Intraspecific competition.

47. What is the expected percentage of F₂ progeny with yellow and inﬂated pod in dihybrid cross experiment involving pea plants with green coloured, inﬂated pod and yellow coloured constricted pod?
1. 100%
2. 56.25%
3. 18.75 %
4. 9%

48. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	No virus contains both RNA and DNA.
Statement II:	Bacteriophages are usually single-stranded RNA viruses.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

49. When an enzyme denatures:

1.	the activation energy of the reaction is doubled.
2.	the activation energy of the reaction is lowered.
3.	its optimal conditions for the temperature of the enzyme are doubled.
4.	the shape of the enzyme molecule changes

50.

Wind-pollinated flowers are characterized by the following, except:

1.	Light and non-sticky pollen grains
2.	Well-exposed stamens
3.	Many ovules in each ovary
4.	Large, often-feathery stigma

Zoology - Section A

51.

Myelin sheath around axons in peripheral nervous system and in central nervous system is produced respectively by:
1. Schwann cells; microglia
2. oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells
3. Schwann cells; oligodendrocytes
4. satellite cells; astrocytes

52. α Thalassemia is controlled by:

1.	two closely linked genes on chromosome 16
2.	two closely linked genes on chromosome 11
3.	a single gene on chromosome 11
4.	a single gene on chromosome 16

53. ART stands for:
1. Assisted Reproductive Technologies
2. Assisted Reproductive Techniques
3. Artificial Reproductive Technologies
4. Artificial Reproductive Techniques

54.

In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched, whereas the remaining three are correct?

	Genus Name		Two Characters	Phylum
1.	Pila	(i) (ii)	Body segmented Mouth with Radula	Mollusca
2.	Asterias	(i) (ii)	Spiny skinned Water Vascular System	Echinodermata
3.	Sycon	(i) (ii)	Pore bearing Canal system	Porifera
4.	Periplaneta	(i) (ii)	Jointed appendages Chitinous exoskeleton	Arthropoda

55. The number of autosomes expected in a human skin cell is:
1. 22
2. 23
3. 44
4. 46

56.

The cells in areolar loose connective tissue that can secrete histamine are:

1.	Fibroblasts	2.	Macrophages
3.	Mast cells	4.	Basophils

57.

Embryological support for evolution was proposed by:
1. Ernst Mayr
2. Ernst Haeckel
3. Hugo de Vries
4. Kary Mullis

58.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The first organisms that invaded land were the plants.
II:	Lobefins evolved into the first amphibians.
III:	Ramapithecus was more ape-like and Dryopithecus was more man-like.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

59. All chordates have:
1. scales covering their skin
2. jaws
3. notochord
4. vertebral column

60. The structure formed during human embryonic development is shown in the given figure:

1.	is morula and has 8 to 16 cells
2.	is the antral follicle with a fluid-filled antrum
3.	is blastocyst that gets implanted on the uterine endometrium
4.	is gastrula where the three germ layers are formed before implantation

61.

The extent of the global diversity of invertebrates is represented in the image below. Choose the correct combination of groups (A-D) respectively:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Insects	Crustaceans	Other animal groups	Molluscs
2.	Crustaceans	Insects	Molluscs	Other animal groups
3.	Molluscs	Other animal groups	Crustaceans	Insects
4	Insects	Molluscs	Crustaceans	Other animal groups

62. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	The amount of CO₂ that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference in partial pressure is much higher compared to that of O₂.
Reason (R):	Haemoglobin does not play any role in the transport of carbon dioxide in human blood.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True

63.

Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it:

1.	binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
2.	activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
3.	detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
4.	prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.

64.

Match the plasma proteins in Column I with their function in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Albumins	a.	Hemostasis
B.	Globulins	b.	Transport carriers and immunity
C.	Fibrinogen	c.	Colloid osmotic pressure

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	a	b	c
2.	a	c	b
3.	b	a	c
4.	c	b	a

65. The menstrual bleed is primarily due to the withdrawal of:
1. Oestrogen
2. Progesterone
3. LH
4. FSH

66. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Mitochondria	P	Photophosphorylation
B	Chloroplast	Q	Oxidative phosphorylation
C	Tonoplast	R	Vacuole
D	Elaioplast	S	Stores lipids

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	P	Q	S	R
3.	Q	P	S	R
4.	Q	P	R	S

67. The posterior pituitary is:

1.	under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus
2.	under the regulation of the chemicals produced by the hypothalamus
3.	is not under any regulation of the hypothalamus
4.	is regulated directly by the humoral concentrations of the hormones it secretes

68.

At which stage of HIV infection does one usually shows symptoms of AIDS?

1.	When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase.
2.	When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages a large number of these.
3.	Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person.
4.	When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells.

69.

Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron?

1.	Henle’s loop – most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate
2.	Distal convoluted tubule – reabsorption of ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
3.	Afferent arteriole – carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein
4.	Podocytes - create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule

70.

Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because:

1.	This disease is due to a Y-linked recessive mutation
2.	This disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation
3.	This disease is due to an X-linked dominant mutation
4.	A greater proportion of girls die in infancy

71.

Which of the following STDs are not curable?

1.	Genital herpes, Hepatitis B, HIV infection
2.	Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, Genital warts
3.	HIV, Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis
4.	Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis B

72.

Match Column I with Column II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Family	(i)	Diptera
B.	Order	(ii)	Arthropoda
C.	Class	(iii)	Muscidae
D.	Phylum	(iv)	Insecta

1. A-(iii) B-(i) C-(iv) D-(ii)
2. A-(iii) B-(ii) C-(iv) D-(i)
3. A-(iv) B-(iii) C-(ii) D-(i)
4. A-(iv) B-(ii) C-(i) D-(iii)

73. The given diagrammatic representation of the operation of natural selection on a trait shows:

1. Stabilizing selection
2. Directional selection
3. Disruptive selection
4. Discontinuous selection

74. A glenoid cavity is:

1.	seen in scapula and articulates with head of humerus
2.	seen in coxal bone and articulates with head of femur
3.	seen in clavicle and articulates with sternum
4.	seen in femur and articulates with patella

75.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Partial pressure of oxygen in]		Column II [Value in mm Hg]
A	Atmospheric air	P	104
B	Alveoli	Q	159
C	Oxygenated blood	R	95
D	Tissues	S	40

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	S	R
2.	P	Q	R	S
3.	P	Q	S	R
4.	Q	P	R	S

76. Two core techniques that enabled birth of modern biotechnology are:

A:	Techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material, to introduce these into host organisms and thus change the phenotype of the host organism.
B:	Maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical engineering process to enable growth of only the desired microbes/eukaryotic cell in large quantities for the manufacture of biotechnological products.

1.	A is called as Genetic Engineering and B is called as Biophysical engineering.
2.	A is called as Genomics and B is called as Bioprocess engineering.
3.	A is called as Genetic Engineering and B is called as Bioprocess engineering.
4.	A is called as Genomics and B is called as Biophysical engineering.

77.

Doctors use a stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is heard when:

1.	AV valves open up
2.	Ventricular walls vibrate due to the gushing of blood from the atria
3.	Semi-lunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from the ventricles
4.	AV node receives a signal from SA node

78. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy?
1. Twelve weeks
2. Eighteen weeks
3. Six weeks
4. Eight weeks

79. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A):	The alimentary canal in frogs is short.
Reason (R):	Frogs are carnivores.

In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

80.

Intercalated discs are found in:

1.	Cuboidal epithelium	2.	Smooth muscles
3.	Cardiac muscles	4.	Sarcolemma

81. The fungus used in the industrial preparation of citric acid is:

1.	Penicillium chrysogenum	2.	Clostridium butylicum
3.	Trichoderma harzianum	4.	Aspergillus niger

82. A disease that can be caused by the loss of the ability of the adaptive immunity to differentiate between self and non-self will be:

1.	Tuberculosis	2.	Covid-19
3.	Bronchial asthma	4.	Rheumatoid arthritis

83. The ‘beads-on-string’ is the description used for the structure of:

1.	nucleolus in a nucleus
2.	heterochromatic inactivated X chromosome in females
3.	nucleosome in chromatin
4.	tetrad of paired homologs in first meiosis

84.

Synapsis occurs between:

1.	a male and a female gamete
2.	mRNA and ribosomes
3.	spindle fibres and centromere
4.	two homologous chromosomes

85.

The type of immunity responsible for graft rejection is:

1.	Humoral immunity	2.	Cell mediated immunity
3.	Innate immunity	4.	Hyperimmunity

Zoology - Section B

86.

Some hormones can act on their target cells through second messengers. Identify the one that does not:

1.	cortisol	2.	adrenaline
3.	FSH	4.	calcitonin

87.

Assertion (A):	Unless one cuts the vector and the source DNA with the same restriction enzyme, the recombinant vector molecule cannot be created.
Reason (R):	Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindrome sites, but never between the same two bases on the opposite strands.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	(A) is False and (R) is True.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

88.

Given below is the initial amino acids of the beta chain of a haemoglobin molecule. What will be true about this haemoglobin molecule?

1.	The RBCs carrying this molecule will undergo sickling at a high oxygen tension
2.	The RBCs carrying this molecule will undergo sickling at a low oxygen tension
3.	There will be a quantitative decrease in the synthesis of this molecule
4.	This is the normal beta chain of the haemoglobin molecule

89. Tadpoles are typically:

1.	carnivorous	2.	filter feeders
3.	sanguinivorous	4.	herbivorous

90.

A normal cellular gene which when altered by mutation can contribute to cancer is called:

1.	Oncogene	2.	V – Onc
3.	Neoplastic gene	4.	Proto-oncogene

91.

The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of:
1. Homology
2. Analogy
3. Convergent evolution
4. Adaptive radiation

92. What would not be true for a plasmid present in some bacterial cells?

1.	It is extrachromosomal DNA
2.	It is circular and double stranded
3.	It gets replicated with the help of ori of chromosomal DNA
4.	It confers characters like resistance to antibiotics to bacterial cells

93.

In contrast to Annelids, Platyhelminths show:
1. Absence of body cavity
2. Presence of pseudocoelom
3. Radial symmetry
4. Bilateral symmetry

94.

Which of the following equations regarding the calculation of pulmonary capacities would be correct?

1.	IC = IRV – TV	2.	EC = VC – IRV
3.	VC = ERV + IRV	4.	TLC = VC – RV

95. Match each item in Column I with one given in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Lub	P.	Closure of AV valves
B.	Dub	Q.	Closure of semilunar valves
C.	Passive ventricular filling	R.	70%
D.	Active ventricular filling	S.	30%

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	S	R
2.	P	Q	R	S
3.	P	Q	S	R
4.	Q	P	R	S

96.

The first drug produced using recombinant DNA technology is used to treat:

1.	haemophilia	2.	dwarfism
3.	immunodeficiency	4.	diabetes

97.

Consider the given statements regarding the human skull:

I:	It has a total of 22 bones.
II:	Cranial bones are 14 in number and the facial bones are 8 in number.
III:	It is monocondylic.
IV:	A single hyoid bone is located at the base of the buccal cavity.

The correct statements include:
1. Only I
2. Only I and IV
3. Only II and III
4. Only I, II, and IV

98.

If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from:
1. epididymis to vas deferens
2. ovary to uterus
3. vagina to uterus
4. testis to epididymis

99.

Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Both ADH and aldosterone attempt to decrease urine output.
Statement II:	A person with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus will have a higher than normal solute concentration in the urine.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

100. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	With the help of several ommatidia, a cockroach can perceive several images of an object, i.e., mosaic vision
Reason (R):	Mosaic vision gives less sensitivity but more resolution

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
2.	(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
3.	Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4.	Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

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