Biology Prodigy Test #17 (Full Syllabus)

Botany - Section A

1.

Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Mitosis helps in restoration of nuclear cytoplasmic ratio for effective working of a cell.
Statement II:	Mitosis leads to formation of genetically diverse cells leading to generation of variations.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

2.

The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was provided by:

1.	Avery, Macleod, and McCarty
2.	Hershey and Chase
3.	Meselson and Stahl
4.	Watson and Crick

3.

Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by?

1.	Apical meristems	2.	Vascular cambium
3.	Phellogen	4.	Axillary meristems

4. Besides starch, pyrenoids in many members of Chlorophyceae, contain:

1.	Double-stranded DNA
2.	A low molecular weight RNA
3.	Protein
4.	Lipids

5. The reactions of the Calvin cycle can take place as long as which of the following products of the light dependent reactions are available?

1.	Water and Glucose
2.	Water and ATP
3.	Oxygen and Carbon dioxide
4.	ATP and NADPH

6. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis.
2.	Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP).
3.	Gross primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers).
4.	Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.

7. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	More than 25% of the drugs currently sold in the market worldwide are derived from plants.
Statement II:	Amazon forest is estimated to produce, through photosynthesis 5 % of the total oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

8. The given floral formula describes plants of family:

1. Solanaceae
2. Fabaceae
3. Brassicaceae
4. Liliaceae

9. A functional unit of nature, where living organisms interact among themselves and also with the surrounding physical environment, is called as:

1.	A population	2.	A species
3.	A biological community	4.	An ecosystem

10. Which one of the following statements is true?

1.	Exine of pollen grains is made up of cellulose and pectin
2.	Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
3.	Pollens cannot be stored in liquid nitrogen
4.	Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther

11.

Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem?
1. Energy flow
2. Decomposition
3. Productivity
4. Stratification

12. All the following biomolecules can be called both polymers and macromolecules except:
1. Lipids
2. Proteins
3. Carbohydrates
4. Nucleic acids

13.

A double stranded DNA is found to contain 23% thymine. What is the expected percentage of cytosine in this DNA molecule?

1.	23	2.	27
3.	46	4.	54

14. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Lysine	P	Simplest alpha amino acid
B	Serine	Q	Aromatic amino acid
C	Glycine	R	Basic amino acid
D	Tryptophan	S	R functional group is hydroxymethyl

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	S	P	Q
2.	R	S	Q	P
3.	S	R	P	Q
4.	S	R	Q	P

15.

Photosynthetic Active Radiation (PAR) has the following range of wavelengths
1. 340-450 nm
2. 450-950 nm
3. 500-600 nm
4. 400-700 nm

16. Typically, drupes develop from:

1.	monocarpellary inferior ovaries and are one seeded.
2.	monocarpellary superior ovaries and are one seeded.
3.	multicarpellary superior ovaries and are many seeded.
4.	multicarpellary inferior ovaries and are many seeded.

17.

Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?

1.	They are eukaryotic
2.	All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall
3.	They are heterotrophic
4.	They are both unicellular as well as multicellular

18.

Select the correct matching among the following pairs.

1. Smooth ER-Oxidation of phospholipids
2. Smooth ER-Synthesis of lipids
3. Rough ER-Synthesis of glycogen
4. Rough ER-Oxidation of fatty acids

19.

Match the stages of meiosis in Column I to their characteristic features in Column II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

	Column I		Column II
(a)	pachytene	(1)	pairing of homologous chromosomes
(b)	metaphase I	(2)	terminalisation of chiasmata
(c)	diakinesis	(3)	crossing-over takes place
(d)	zygotene	(4)	chromosomes align at equatorial plate

1. a-3 b-4 c-2 d-1
2. a-1 b-4 c-2 d-3
3. a-2 b-4 c-3 d-1
4. a-4 b-3 c-2 d-1

20. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Antheridium in bryophytes produces biflagellate antherozoids.
Statement II:	Archegonium in bryophytes produces a single egg.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement II is correct; Statement I is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

21.

In some plants, the thalamus contributes to fruit formation. Such fruits are termed as:
1. False fruits
2. Aggregate fruits
3. True fruits
4. Parthenocarpic fruits

22.

Which of the following is not a feature of the double helix model of DNA?

1.	The two chains have anti-parallel polarity
2.	A purine always comes opposite to a pyrimidine
3.	The pitch of the DNA is 3.4 nm
4.	The two chains are coiled in a left handed fashion

23.

What initiation and termination factors are involved in transcription in prokaryotes?
1. $σ$ $and$ $ρ$ , respectively
2. $α$ $and$ $β$ , respectively
3. $β$ $and$ $γ$ , respectively
4. $α$ $and$ $σ$ , respectively

24.

What is F₂ phenotypic ratio in a dihybrid cross?

1.	1 : 1	2.	3 : 1
3.	9 : 3 : 3 : 1	4.	1 : 1 : 1: 1

25. The Ladybird and Dragonflies are useful to respectively get rid of:
1. mosquitoes and aphids
2. aphids and mosquitoes
3. bollworms and corn borers
4. corn borers and bollworms

26.

The simplest α amino acid is:

1.	Glycine	2.	Alanine
3.	Serine	4.	Lysine

27.

Match the following :

A.	IAA	i.	Herring sperm DNA
B.	ABA	ii.	Bolting
C.	Ethylene	iii.	Stomatal closure
D.	GA	iv.	Weed-free lawns
E.	Cytokinins	v.	Ripening of fruits

Options:

	A	B	C	D	E
1.	iv	iii	v	ii	i
2.	v	iii	iv	ii	i
3.	iv	i	v	iii	ii
4.	v	iii	ii	i	iv

28.

Select the wrong statement:

1.	The walls of diatoms are easily destructible
2.	Diatomaceous earth is formed by the cell walls of diatoms
3.	Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans
4.	Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water

29.

Examine the figures A, B, C and D. In which one of the four options all the items, A, B, C and D are correct?

Options :

	A	B	C	D
1.	Equisetum	Ginkgo	Selaginella	Lycopodium
2.	Selaginella	Equisetum	Salvinia	Ginkgo
3.	Funaria	Adiantum	Salvinia	Riccia
4.	Chara	Marchantia	Fucus	Pinus

30.

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

1.	Golden algae are also called desmids
2.	Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.
3.	Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi.
4.	Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae.

31.

A typical angiosperm embryosac, at maturity, is:

1.	8 celled and 8 nucleate	2.	8 celled and 7 nucleate
3.	7 celled and 8 nucleate	4.	7 celled and 7 nucleate

32.

In Avery, MacLeod and McCarty experiment, the transformation was affected by the use of:

1.	Protease	2.	DNase
3.	RNase	4.	Lipase

33. Water affects the process of photosynthesis in higher plants because:

I:	Water stress can cause the stomata to close, hence, reducing the carbon dioxide availability.
II:	Water stress also makes leaves wilt, thus, reducing the surface area of the leaves and their metabolic activity as well.

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

34.

Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of?
1. budding
2. somatic hybridization
3. apomixis
4. sporulation

35.

Lactic Acid Bacillus, while used for converting milk to curd, increases the nutritional value of curd by adding vitamin:

1.	A	2.	B₁₂
3.	C	4.	D

Botany - Section B

36. A gene is said to be polymorphic if it has more than one variant and the frequency of the least common variant is at least:
1. 0.01
2. 0.1
3. 0.5
4. 1.0

37. An F₂ phenotypic ratio of 1: 4: 6: 4: 1 from a cross AaBb X AaBb is expected in the case of:
1. Dominant epistasis
2. Complementary genes
3. Polygenic inheritance
4. Independent assortment

38.

On a logarithmic scale, the species-area relationship turns out to be a:

1.	Straight line	2.	Rectangular hyperbola
3.	Bell shaped	4.	U shaped

39.

Regarding Marchantia:

I:	The thallus is dorsi-ventral and closely appressed to the substrate.
II:	The plant is monoecious.

1.	Both I and II are incorrect
2.	Only I is incorrect
3.	Only I is correct
4.	Both I and II are correct

40.

What is the dihybrid test cross-ratio?

1.	1 : 1	2.	3 : 1
3.	9 : 3 : 3 : 1	4.	1 : 1 : 1: 1

41.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Component of ETC	Name
1.	Complex I	NADH dehydrogenase
2.	Complex II	Succinate dehydrogenase
3.	Complex III	Cytochrome b₆f complex
4.	Complex IV	Cytochrome c oxidase

42.

Which of the following organelles in a eukaryotic cell can only be seen after staining with vital dye?

1.	Mitochondria	2.	Chloroplasts
3.	Nucleus	4.	Endoplasmic reticulum

43.

The bioreactor shown in the diagram is:

1.	Sparged stirred tank type	2.	Airlift type
3.	Simple stirred tank type	4.	Fluidized bed type

44.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Triploid nutritive tissue of a seed deposited externally to the embryo sac	Perisperm
2.	The tissue that arises from the ripened ovary wall of a fruit; the fruit wall	Pericarp
3.	The natural or artificially induced production of fruit without fertilisation of ovules	Parthenocarpy
4.	Asexual reproduction where the growth and development of embryos occur without fertilization by sperm	Parthenogenesis

45.

A pea plant shows the dominant phenotype. You conduct a single gene test cross to determine the genotype of this pea plant (T = tall, t = short). All progeny of the test cross show the dominant phenotype. The genotype of the plant in question is most likely:

1.	TT.	2.	TTtt.
3.	Tt.	4.	tt.

46.

Anatomically, fairly old dicotyledonous root is distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by:
1. absence of secondary xylem
2. absence of secondary phloem
3. presence of cortex
4. position of protoxylem

47. In dicot roots, initiation of lateral roots takes place in the cells of:

1.	Endodermis	2.	Pericycle
3.	Epiblema	4.	Hypodermis

48. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play a great role in:

1.	forming blooms in polluted water bodies
2.	recycling nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, iron and sulphur
3.	making curd from milk
4.	fixing nitrogen in legume roots

49. Which of the following polysaccharides does not have glucose as its constituent unit?
1. Inulin
2. Starch
3. Cellulose
4. Glycogen

50. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Placentation]		Column II [Example]
A	Axile	P	Mustard
B	Parietal	Q	Dianthus
C	Free central	R	Lemon
D	Basal	S	Marigold

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	P	Q	S
2.	P	R	Q	S
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	R	P	S	Q

Zoology - Section A

51. All the following hormones are produced in women only during pregnancy except:

1.	Oxytocin	2.	Relaxin
3.	hCG	4.	hPL

52. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	ANF mechanism acts as a check on the renin-angiotensin mechanism.
Reason (R):	ANF can cause vasodilation (dilation of blood vessels) and thereby decrease blood pressure.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

53.

In the given diagram, identify A, B, C, and D respectively:

1.	LH, FSH, Progesterone and Estrogen
2.	FSH, LH, Estrogen and Progesterone
3.	Estrogen, Progesterone, LH and FSH
4.	Progesterone, Estrogen, FSH and LH

54. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	The vascular system of frog is well-developed and closed type.
Statement II:	Frogs do not have a lymphatic system.

1.	Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is incorrect

55.

Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?

1.	Inflammation of bronchioles; decreased respiratory surface
2.	Increased number of bronchioles; increased respiratory surface
3.	Increased respiratory surface; inflammation of bronchioles
4.	Decreased respiratory surface; inflammation of bronchioles

56. Consider the two given statements:

Statement I:	Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of a chromosome(s).
Statement II:	Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell division results in an increase in a whole set of chromosomes in an organism.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

57.

In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia), the black-coloured form became dominant over the light-coloured form in England during the industrial revolution. This is an example of:

1.	natural selection, whereby the darker forms were selected
2.	appearance of the darker coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight
3.	protective mimicry
4.	inheritance of darker colour character acquired due to the darker environment

58. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Multipolar neuron	P	Retina
B	Bipolar neuron	Q	Embryonic stages
C	Unipolar neuron	R	Dorsal root ganglion of spinal nerve
D	Pseudounipolar neuron	S	Cerebral cortex

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	S	Q	R
2.	P	S	R	Q
3.	S	P	R	Q
4.	S	P	Q	R

59.

Pain and inflammation that occur when too much uric acid crystallizes and deposits in the joints are known as:

1.	gout	2.	osteoarthritis
3.	osteoporosis	4.	rheumatoid arthritis

60. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Heart failure	P	Sudden stoppage of heart beating
B	Heart attack	Q	Heart muscle is damaged by inadequate blood supply
C	Cardiac arrest	R	Electrical signals in heart are blocked
		S	Heart can't pump enough oxygen-rich blood to meet body's needs

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	R	Q	P
2.	R	P	S
3.	S	Q	P
4.	S	Q	R

61. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	A continuous culturing method produces a larger biomass, leading to higher yields of the desired protein.
Reason (R):	In a continuous culture system, the used medium is drained out from one side while the fresh medium is added from the other to maintain the cells in their physiologically most active log/exponential phase.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

62.

The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is:

1.	Plasma membrane	2.	Mitochondria
3.	Cytoplasm	4.	Nucleus

63.

A statutory ban on amniocentesis in India was necessary because:

1.	It is very expensive
2.	It can tell about chromosomal aberrations
3.	It is an invasive procedure and carries a high risk of abortions
4.	It can be used for pre-natal sex determination of the fetus leading to female feticides

64.

Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one or two blanks:

(A)	Bears go into ________ (1) _ during winter to ________ (2) _ cold weather.
(B)	A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents _________ (3) human population.
(C)	A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of ________ (4) _ .
(D)	An area with high levels of species richness is known as _________ (5) .

Which of the following options, gives the correct fill-ups for the respective blank numbers from(1) to (5) in the statements?

1.	(1) - hibernation, (2) - escape, (3) - expanding, (5) - hot spot
2.	(3) - stable, (4) - commensalism, (5) - marsh
3.	(1) - aestivation, (2) - escape, (3) - stable, (4) - mutualism
4.	(3) - expanding, (4) - commensalism, (5) - biodiversity park

65.

During which stage of mitosis do the following events occur?

I:	Centromeres split and chromatids separate
II:	Chromatids move to opposite poles

1.	Prophase	2.	Metaphase
3.	Anaphase	4.	Telophase

66. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Number of possible phenotypes in ABO blood group system	P	1 : 2 : 1
B	Number of possible genotypes in ABO blood group system	Q	3 : 1
C	F₂ phenotypic ratio in incomplete dominance	R	4
D	F₂ phenotypic ratio in complete dominance	S	6

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	R	S	P
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	S	P	Q	R

67.

Given ahead is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands and one major effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C.

Gland	Secretion	Effect on Body
A	Oestrogen	Maintenance of secondary sexual characters
Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans	B	Raises blood sugar level
Anterior pituitary	C	Oversecretion leads to gigantism

Options:	A	B	C
1.	Placenta	Insulin	Vasopressin
2.	Ovary	Insulin	Calcium
3.	Placenta	Glucagon	Calcitonin
4.	Ovary	Glucagon	Growth hormone

68. The cell shown in the figure is used in:

1.	capturing prey in Cnidarians
2.	generating water current in sponges
3.	osmoregulation in rotifers
4.	movement in ctenophores

69. Common cold:

1.	is caused by a bacterium
2.	affects lungs very early in the disease
3.	is not transmitted by droplets resulting from the cough or sneezes of an infected person
4.	can be transmitted through contaminated objects such as pens, books, cups, doorknobs, computer keyboard or mouse, etc.

70. The name of Alexander von Humboldt is associated with:
1. the concept of competitive release
2. Rivet popper hypothesis
3. the concept of Species area relationship
4. Ecological sanitation

71. Around 200 mya, some land reptiles went back to the water to evolve into fish-like reptiles, for example:

1.	Pareiasaurus	2.	Pelycosaur
3.	Ichthyosaurus	4.	Archosaurus

72. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Organism]		Column II [Osmoregulatory and excretory structure]
A	Flatworms, rotifers, Amphioxus	P	Protonephridia
B	Earthworm	Q	Nephridia
C	Insects	R	Malpighian tubule
D	Prawn	S	Green gland or antennal gland

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	R	S	P
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	S	P	Q	R

73.

Seminal plasma in humans is rich in:

1.	fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
2.	fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
3.	glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium
4.	fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium

74. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Palmitic acid	P	Has 16 carbons excluding carboxyl carbon
B	Beta pleated sheet	Q	Has 16 carbons including carboxyl carbon
C	Arachidonic acid	R	Secondary structure of a protein
		S	Tertiary structure of a protein
		T	Has 20 carbons including carboxyl carbon

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	Q	R	T
2.	Q	R	P
3.	P	R	Q
4.	R	P	Q

75. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	In a typical nucleus, some regions of chromatin are loosely packed (and stains light) and are referred to as euchromatin.
2.	The chromatin that is more densely packed and stains dark is called Heterochromatin.
3.	Euchromatin is said to be transcriptionally inactive chromatin, whereas heterochromatin is active.
4.	Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of a structure in the nucleus called chromatin.

76.

The famous aphorism ‘omnis cellula-e-cellula’ was added to the cell theory by:
1. Theodor Schwann
2. Matthias Schleiden
3. Robert Hooke
4. Rudolf Virchow

77. What type of neuron is found in the human retina and olfactory membrane?
1. Unipolar
2. Bipolar
3. Multipolar
4. Pseudo-unipolar

78.

The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:
1. Thiobacillus ferrooxidans
2. Bacillius subtilis
3. Pseudomonas putida
4. Thermus aquaticus

79. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Myasthenia gravis	P	Auto-immune
B	Arthritis	Q	Inflammation of joints
C	Tetany	R	Low calcium in body fluids
D	Osteoporosis	S	Low levels of oestrogen

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	R	S	P
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	S	P	Q	R

80.

Cells sloughed from malignant tumors reach distant sites through blood, and wherever they get lodged in the body, they start a new tumor there. This property is called:
1. Oncogenic transformation
2. Contact inhibition
3. Metastasis
4. Metaplasia

81. The process of RNA interference (RNAi) involves:

1.	inducing the transcription of genes by substrate
2.	silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule
3.	repressing the transcription of genes by product
4.	increasing the rate of transcription by activator proteins

82. Over 95 % of all transgenic animals are:
1. Mice
2. Pigs
3. Sheep
4. Rabbits

83. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	Open circulatory system is considered to be more advantageous than the closed circulatory system.
Reason (R):	Open circulatory system is present in arthropods and molluscs, two of the most successful animal phyla.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

84.

Assertion (A):	Ketonuria is seen in persons with diabetes mellitus.
Reason (R):	Persons with diabetes mellitus also have glycosuria.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

85.

Assertion (A):	Stressed people are more susceptible to contracting the common cold than people who are not stressed.
Reason (R):	Increased cortisol levels in stressed people can cause a decrease in immunity.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

Zoology - Section B

86. Unlike humans, frogs have a:

I:	Hepatic portal system
II:	Renal portal system

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

87. Give below are two statements:

Statement I:	When an infected female Anopheles mosquito bites, it releases gametocytes of plasmodium into the healthy person.
Statement II:	The female Anopheles mosquito takes up sporozoites of Plasmodium with blood meal from an infected person, suffering from malaria.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options give below:

1.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

88.

Consider the following features:

A:	Organ system level of organisation
B:	Bilateral symmetry
C:	True coelom with segmentation of body

Select the correct option of animal groups that possess all the above characteristics:

1.	Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
2.	Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
3.	Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
4.	Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata

89. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Humans breathe by negative pressure.
Statement II:	The respiratory center is directly affected by low oxygen levels.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

90. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is caused by a bacterium?
1. Trypanosomiasis
2. Syphilis
3. Genital warts
4. Trichomoniasis

91.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The largest known human gene is dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.
II:	Repeated sequences make up a very large portion of the human genome.
III:	There are about 2.4 million locations where single-base DNA differences occur in humans.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III

92.

Both tendons and ligaments:

I:	are dense irregular connective tissues
II:	connect muscle to bone

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

93. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Neanderthals lived between 1,50,000 and 1,00,000 years back.
2.	Modern Homo sapiens arose between 75000 and 10000 years ago.
3.	Pre-historic cave art developed around 18000 years ago.
4.	Agriculture came around 10000 years ago

94.

Which of the following diseases is/are correctly matched with their modes of transmission?

	Disease/Infection	Mode of transmission
I.	Ascariasis	Contaminated food and water
II.	Elephantiasis	Vector-borne
III.	Ringworm	Direct contact

Options:

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II and III

95. An impairment affecting synthesis or release of ADH results in:

1.	a diminished ability of the kidney to conserve water
2.	enhanced re-absorption of water by the collecting duct of the nephron
3.	glycosuria and ketonuria
4.	a generalised vasoconstriction in the body leading to uncontrolled hypertension

96. Eyes in a frog:

I:	are situated in the orbit in skull.
II:	are compound eyes possessing a large number of units.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

97. Members of Chondrichthyes are characterised by all the following except:

1.	Presence of a swim bladder
2.	Ventrally located mouth
3.	Lack of operculum
4.	Placoid scales

98.

To prevent eryhtroblastosis fetalis in future pregnancies:

1.	Anti-Rh Immunoglobulins must be given to Rh –ve mothers at the time of each delivery
2.	Anti-Rh Immunoglobulins must be given to new born at the time of each delivery
3.	Rh Antigens must be given to new born at the time of each delivery
4.	Anti Antigens must be given to Rh –ve mothers at the time of each delivery

99.

About what percent of all insects is phytophagus?

1.	1 %	2.	25 %
3.	65 %	4.	99 %

100.

Assertion (A):	Any subsequent encounter with the same pathogen encountered earlier elicits a highly intensified secondary or anamnestic response.
Reason (R):	The body appears to have memory of the first or any previous encounters with the same antigen.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

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