Biology Prodigy Test #18 (Full Syllabus)

Botany - Section A

1.

In general, with every 10^oC rise in the temperature [in the range 0^oC to 40^oC], the rate of enzyme catalyzed reaction:
1. Becomes half
2. Gets doubled
3. Remains same
4. There is no such correlation in general

2. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Phyllotaxy]		Column II [Example]
A.	Alternate	P.	Alstonia
B.	Opposite	Q.	Calotropis and Guava
C.	Whorled	R.	China rose, Mustard and Sunflower

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	P	Q	R
2.	P	R	Q
3.	R	Q	P
4.	Q	P	R

3.

Match the fungi [Column I] with the Class to which it belongs [Column II] and select the correct answer from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Ustilago tritici	P.	Phycomycetes
B.	Albugo candida	Q.	Ascomycetes
C.	Alternaria solani	R.	Basidiomycetes
D.	Claviceps purpurea	S.	Deuteromycetes

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	P	S	Q
2.	Q	P	S	R
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	Q	S	P	R

4.

If you are provided with the root tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into?

1.	Telophase	2.	Anaphase
3.	Prophase	4.	Metaphase

5. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	In Cycas, the pinnate leaves persist for a few years.
Statement II:	In conifers, the needle-like leaves reduce the surface area helping to reduce water loss.

1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3. Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

6.

By studying purple sulphur bacteria and green sulphur bacteria, who was the first scientist to demonstrate, in 1931, that photosynthesis is a light-dependent redox reaction in which hydrogen from an oxidizable compound reduces carbon dioxide to cellular materials?
1. Robert Hill
2. C. B. van Neil
3. Arnon
4. Jan Ingenhousz

7. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Trophic level]		Column II [Example]
A	Primary Producer	P	Cow
B	Primary Consumer	Q	Wolf
C	Secondary Consumer	R	Lion
D	Tertiary Consumer	S	Grass

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	S	P	R	Q
2.	P	S	R	Q
3.	P	S	R	R
4.	S	P	Q	R

8.

In stems:

1.	the primary xylem is endarch with protoxylem towards the center and metaxylem towards the periphery
2.	the primary xylem is endarch with metaxylem towards the center and protoxylem towards the periphery
3.	the primary xylem is exarch with protoxylem towards the center and metaxylem towards the periphery
4.	the primary xylem is exarch with metaxylem towards the center and protoxylem towards the periphery

9.

Viable material of endangered species can be preserved by:
1. Gene bank
2. Gene library
3. Herbarium
4. Gene pool

10.

In an ecosystem, the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is called as its:

1.	Gross Primary productivity
2.	Net Primary productivity
3.	Secondary productivity
4.	Non productivity

11.

What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid?

1.	One fuses with the egg and the other fuses with central cell nuclei
2.	One fuses with the egg and the other(s) degenerate(s) in the synergid
3.	All fuse with the egg
4.	One fuses with the egg and the other(s) fuse(s) with a synergid nucleus

12.

In the five kingdom classification, the members of Kingdom Animalia:

I:	are all heterotrophs
II:	are all multicellular where cells lack a cell wall

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

13.

A plant, on repeated self-pollination, preserves the trait expressed for many generations. Such a plant is said to be:

1.	Panmictic	2.	Homologous
3.	Apomictic	4.	Pure line

14.

The zwitterion is shown by:

1.	Only A	2.	Only B
3.	Both A and C	4.	A, B and C

15. The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter. Of this, the productivity of the oceans is:
1. 55 billion tons.
2. 70 billion tons.
3. 100 billion tons.
4. 120 billion tons.

16. The figure represents the floral diagram of Family:

1.	Fabaceae	2.	Liliaceae
3.	Solanaceae	4.	Brassicaceae

17. Regarding ATP synthase involved in chemiosmosis in chloroplasts:

I:	The component CF₀ is embedded in the thylakoid membrane.
II:	The component CF₁ protrudes on the outer surface of the thylakoid membrane on the side that faces the stroma.

1.	Only I is correct
2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

18.

Which one of the following statements is not true?

1.	Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
2.	Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
3.	Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in crop breeding programs
4.	Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther

19. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Family]		Column II [Floral diagram]
A	Brassicaceae	P
B	Fabaceae	Q
C	Solanaceae	R
D	Liliaceae	S

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	R	S
2.	Q	P	S	R
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	P	Q	S	R

20. Evolutionarily, pteridophytes are the first:

1.	plants with haplontic life cycle
2.	terrestrial plants with dominant gametophytic generation
3.	plants to produce flowers pollinated by insects
4.	terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues

21. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [PGR]		Column II [Scientist]
A	Auxin	P	E. Kurosawa
B	Cytokinin	Q	F. W. Went
C	Gibberellin	R	H. H. Cousins
D	Ethylene	S	Skoog and Miller

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	S	Q	R	P
2.	Q	S	P	R
3.	P	R	S	Q
4.	R	P	Q	S

22.

The pollen intine is:

1.	a thin and continuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin.
2.	a thick and discontinuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin.
3.	made up of sporopollenin and is a continuous layer.
4.	made up of sporopollenin and has prominent apertures called germ pores.

23.

Cycas have two cotyledons but are not included in angiosperms because of:
1. Naked ovules
2. Seeds like monocot
3. Circinate ptyxis
4. Compound leaves

24.

The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualized after staining with:
1. Acetocarmine
2. Aniline blue
3. Ethidium bromide
4. Bromophenol blue

25.

Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called:

1.	splicing	2.	tailing
3.	transformation	4.	capping

26.

Cuckoos laying their eggs in the nests of crow is an example of:

1.	Ectoparasitism	2.	Endopararsitism
3.	Hyperparasitism	4.	Brood parasitism

27. The Ti plasmid, used in transformation of plant cells, is found in:
1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2. Escherichia coli
3. Bacillus thuringiensis
4. Xanthomonas citri

28.

Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system?

1.	Lysosome	2.	Golgi complex
3.	Peroxisome	4.	Vacuole

29.

The DNA fragments separated on agar gel by electrophoresis can be visualised:

1.	without staining in the visible light
2.	without staining on exposure to UV light
3.	after staining with polyethylene glycol followed by exposure to IR radiation
4.	after staining with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation

30. In agarose gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their:
1. charge
2. size
3. 3-D shape
4. base composition

31.

Spindle fibres attach on to?

1.	kinetochore of the chromosome
2.	centromere of the chromosome
3.	kinetosome of the chromosome
4.	telomere of the chromosome

32. The use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment is called:
1. Bioremediation
2. Biopiracy
3. Bioprospecting
4. Biofortification

33.

The method of DNA replication in which two strands of DNA separate and synthesize new strands is called:
1. Dispersive
2. Conservative
3. Semiconservative
4. Non-conservative

34. How many different proteins does the ribosome consist of?

1.	20	2.	80
3.	60	4.	40

35. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A):	A flower is defined as a modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem.
Reason (R):	Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at successive nodes instead of leaves.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

Botany - Section B

36.

Which one of the following has the highest number of species in nature?

1.	Insects	2.	Birds
3.	Angiosperms	4.	Fungi

37. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II regarding Cycas and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Feature of Cycas]		Column II [Description]
A	Root symbiont	P	Mycorrhiza
B	Leaves	Q	Cyanobacteria
C	Stems	R	Palmate, fall early
		S	Pinnate, persist for few years
		T	Unbranched
		U	Branched

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	Q	S	T
2.	Q	S	U
3.	Q	R	T
4.	P	S	U

38.

The number of substrate level of phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is:

1.	One	2.	Two
3.	Three	4.	Four

39. In an E. coli cell, the enzyme permease:

1.	is present only when glucose levels are very low
2.	is present only when lactose is freely available
3.	is present in a low amount all the time
4.	is not required for using lactose as a source of energy by the cell

40. When the centromere is located close to the end of a chromosome, the chromosome is known as:

1.	Sub-metacentric	2.	Acrocentric
3.	Metacentric	4.	Telocentric

41. The connotations about the theory of special creation include:

I:	All living organisms (species or types) that we see today were created as such.
II:	Diversity was always the same since creation and will be the same in the future also.
III:	Earth is about 4 billion years old.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

42. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	There is a need for the recombinant DNA to be expressed in recombinant DNA technology procedures.
Reason (R):	In almost all recombinant DNA technologies, the ultimate aim is to produce a desirable protein.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

43.

Non- albuminous seed is produced in:

1.	Maize	2.	Castor
3.	Wheat	4.	Pea

44.

Niche is:

1.	All the biological factors in the organism environment
2.	The physical space where an organism lives
3.	The range of temperature that the organism needs to live
4.	The functional role played by the organism where it lives

45.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Pollen viability for months	P	Prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy
B	Pollen viability for less than 30 minutes	Q	Rosaceae and Solanaceae
C	Monoecious condition	R	Prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy
D	Dioecious condition	S	Rice and Wheat

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	S	Q	R	P
2.	S	Q	P	R
3.	Q	S	P	R
4.	Q	S	R	P

46. Phellogen cuts cells on both sides where:

1.	outer cells differentiate into cork or phelloderm and inner cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phellem
2.	inner cells differentiate into cork or phelloderm and outer cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phellem
3.	outer cells differentiate into cork or phellem and inner cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phelloderm
4.	inner cells differentiate into cork or phellem and outer cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phelloderm

47.

Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason from the following :
1. Tyloses in vessels
2. Closure of stomata
3. Flaccidity of bulliform cells
4. Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll

48.

Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
1. Puccinia - Smut
2. Root Exarch- protoxylem
3. Cassia- Imbricate aestivation
4. Root pressure - Guttation

49. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Fungal class]		Column II [Example]
A	Phycomycetes	P	Alternaria
B	Ascomycetes	Q	Smut fungus
C	Basidiomycetes	R	Bread mould
D	Deuteromycetes	S	Truffles

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	R	S
2.	S	R	P	Q
3.	R	Q	S	P
4.	R	S	Q	P

50. How many of the floral characters of plants belonging to Family Solanaceae are correctly matched to their description?

I:	Flower	Zygomorphic
II:	Calyx	Valvate aestivation
III:	Androecium	Epiphyllous
IV:	Ovary	Inferior
V:	Fruits	Berry or capsule

1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 5

Zoology - Section A

51.

Notochord is a:

1.	endodermally derived rod-like structure formed on the dorsal side during embryonic development in some animals.
2.	endodermally derived rod-like structure formed on the ventral side during embryonic development in some animals.
3.	mesodermally derived rod-like structure formed on the dorsal side during embryonic development in some animals.
4.	mesodermally derived rod-like structure formed on the ventral side during embryonic development in some animals.

52.

During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, which of the following occur?

I:	The primary follicle grows and becomes a fully mature Graafian follicle.
II:	The endometrium of the uterus regenerates through proliferation.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. I and II
4. None

53. Arrange the given steps in the process of DNA fingerprinting in correct chronological order [from earliest to last]:

(i)	isolation of DNA
(ii)	separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
(iii)	digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases
(iv)	hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
(v)	detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography
(vi)	transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes, such as nitrocellulose or nylon

1.	(i) – (ii) – (iii) – (vi) – (iv) – (v)
2.	(i) – (iii) – (ii) – (vi) – (iv) – (v)
3.	(ii) – (iii) – (i) – (vi) – (v) – (iv)
4.	(iii) – (i) – (ii) – (v) – (iv) – (vi)

54. Fibrinogen, globulins and albumins are the major proteins and their primary functions are:

1.	Fibrinogen – clotting of blood; Globulins – colloid osmotic pressure; Albumins – defence mechanisms
2.	Fibrinogen – clotting of blood; Globulins – defence mechanisms; Albumins – colloid osmotic pressure
3.	Fibrinogen – prevention of clotting of blood; Globulins – colloid osmotic pressure; Albumins – defence mechanisms
4.	Fibrinogen – prevention of clotting of blood; Globulins – defence mechanisms; Albumins – colloid osmotic pressure

55.

FSH:

1.	Acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
2.	Acts on Sertoli cells and inhibits secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
3.	Acts on Leydig cells and stimulates secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
4.	Acts on Leydig cells and inhibits secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis

56. Which hormone, secreted by the small intestinal mucosa in response to fatty chyme, causes contraction of the gall bladder?
1. Secretin
2. Cholecystokinin
3. Gastric inhibitory peptide
4. Gastrin

57.

What is the number of times that the human kidneys can maximally concentrate the initial filtrate?

1.	2	2.	4
3.	6	4.	8

58. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Panspermia	P	Life comes out of decaying and rotting matter
B	Spontaneous generation	Q	Life was created as such, has not changed since then, earth is 4000 years old
C	Oparin-Haldane hypothesis	R	First life came from pre-existing non-living organic molecules preceded by chemical evolution
D	Special creation	S	Life came from outer space

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	S	Q	R
2.	P	S	R	Q
3.	S	P	Q	R
4.	S	P	R	Q

59. The endoplasmic reticulum, i.e., sarcoplasmic reticulum of the skeletal muscle fibres is:

1.	an example of RER and secretes a large number of proteins.
2.	the store house of calcium ions.
3.	not bound by a membrane.
4.	organised into light and dark bands giving the muscle fibres a striated appearance.

60.

The protein synthesizing machinery of a cell has evolved around:

1.	DNA	2.	RNA
3.	Protein itself	4.	Viroids

61. Identify incorrect statement regarding Periplaneta americana:

1.	Gizzard helps in grinding the food particles.
2.	Blood vascular system is of closed type.
3.	Excretion is performed by Malpighian tubules.
4.	The sperms are stored in the seminal vesicles.

62. The most abundant and the least abundant of the total WBCs, respectively are:
1. Neutrophils and Monocytes
2. Eosinophils and Basophils
3. Neutrophils and Basophils
4. Monocytes and Eosinophils

63.

If any protein-encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, the protein formed is called:

1.	Recombinant protein	2.	Native protein
3.	Pro-protein	4.	Exotic protein

64. The membranes of which of the following cell organelle are not included in the endomembrane system of a eukaryotic cell?
1. Vacuole
2. Lysosome
3. Plastid
4. Endoplasmic reticulum

65.

Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
1. Sex of the foetus
2. Down syndrome
3. Jaundice
4. Klinefelter syndrome

66. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Life history variation]		Column II [Example]
A	Breed only once in their lifetime	P	Most birds and mammals
B	Breed many times during their lifetime	Q	Pacific salmon fish, bamboo
C	Produce a large number of small-sized offspring	R	Oysters, pelagic fishes

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	Q	P	R
2.	Q	R	P
3.	P	R	Q
4.	R	P	Q

67.

The central dogma of molecular biology was proposed by:

1.	Francis Crick	2.	James Watson
3.	Rosalind Franklin	4.	Erwin Chargaff

68. A dihybrid cross yields a phenotypic ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 in F₂ progeny. Most likely, the two genes:
1. are assorting independently
2. are tightly linked on an autosome
3. are linked to a sex chromosome
4. control the same trait

69.

Cyclosporin A is used as a/an:

1.	immuno-suppressive agent in organ transplant patients
2.	clot buster to remove clots from the vessels in heart attack patients
3.	treatment option in advance for HIV infections
4.	agent that lowers blood cholesterol levels

70. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Phylum]		Column II [Characteristic]
A.	Porifera	P.	Water vascular system
B.	Aschelminthes	Q.	Canal system
C.	Echinodermata	R.	Pseudocoelom
D.	Hemichordata	S.	Stomochord

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	R	P	S
2.	S	R	Q	P
3.	Q	S	R	P
4.	R	S	P	Q

71.

Organisms prefer sexual mode of reproduction in adverse conditions because:

1.	It leads to a rapid proliferation of numbers
2.	It requires two individuals that can support the progeny
3.	It is less energy consuming than the asexual mode of reproduction
4.	It provides protection and increases variations that may help progeny to survive

72. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Disease]		Column II [Mode of transmission]
A	Dengue	P	Droplet
B	Ascariasis	Q	Vector borne
C	Pneumonia	R	Soil and articles of infected person
D	Ringworm	S	Contaminated food and water

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	S	Q	P	R
2.	S	Q	R	P
3.	Q	S	P	R
4.	Q	S	R	P

73. The most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction in contemporary times is:
1. Habitat loss and fragmentation
2. Alien species invasion
3. Over exploitation
4. Co-extinction

74.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Primate/hominid]		Column II [Characteristic]
A	Ramapithecus	P	More man like
B	Homo habilis	Q	Brain size 650 – 800 cc
C	Homo erectus	R	Brain size 900 cc
D	Dryopithecus	S	More ape like

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	S	R
2.	P	Q	R	S
3.	P	Q	S	R
4.	Q	P	R	S

75. Many organic substances are negatively charged e.g., acetic acid, while others are positively charged e.g., ammonium ion. An amino acid under certain conditions would have both positive and negative charges simultaneously in the same molecule. Such a form of amino acid is called
1. Positively charged form
2. Negatively charged form
3. Neutral form
4. Zwitter ionic form

76.

The correct sequence of male sex accessory ducts beginning from testis would be:

1.	rete testis → vasa efferentia → epididymis → vas deferens
2.	rete testis → vas deferens → vasa eﬀerentia → epididymis
3.	vas deferens → vasa eﬀerentia → epididymis → rete testis
4.	vasa efferentia → vasa deferens → epididymis → rete testis

77. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is converted to a structure called corpus luteum, which secretes mainly:
1. Oestrogen
2. Progesterone
3. DHEA
4. Corticosterone

78.

ATPase activity is found in:

1.	Myosin head	2.	Myosin tail
3.	G-Actin	4.	Troponin

79.

Use of anti-histamine and steroids give a quick relief from:

1.	allergy	2.	nausea
3.	cough	4.	headache

80. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Protonephridia	P	Prawn
B	Nephridia	Q	Cockroach
C	Malpighian tubules	R	Earthworm
D	Green gland	S	Amphioxus

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	S	R	Q	P
2.	S	R	P	Q
3.	P	Q	S	R
4.	Q	P	R	S

81. ELISA stands for:

1.	Easily Located Immuno Specific Antigen
2.	Early Live Inactive Surface Antigen
3.	Energy Loaded Intermediate Site on Apoenzyme
4.	Enzyme-Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay

82.

Chitin, a complex polysaccharide, is found in:

1.	Plant cell wall
2.	The exoskeleton of arthropods and cell walls of most fungi
3.	Bacterial cell wall
4.	Cartilage and other connective tissues

83. The terms ‘baker’s yeast’ or ‘brewer’s yeast’ are used for:

1.	Saccharomyces cerevisiae
2.	Schizosaccharomyces octosporus
3.	Schizosaccharomyces pombe
4.	Candida albicans

84. The trait, shown by solid symbols in the given pedigree, is MOST LIKELY inherited as:

1. Autosomal recessive trait
2. Sex linked recessive trait
3. Autosomal dominant trait
4. Sex linked dominant trait

85. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	The human heart is called as myogenic.
Reason (R):	The human heart is made up of cardiac muscles.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

Zoology - Section B

86. Unlike RBCs in humans, the RBCs of frog:

I:	are nucleated
II:	contain haemoglobin

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

87.

In some viruses, the flow of genetic information is from RNA to DNA. These viruses are:

1.	Reverse transcriptases	2.	Reoviruses
3.	Ribozymes	4.	Retroviruses

88.

When Morgan hybridised yellow-bodied, white-eyed females to brown-bodied, red-eyed males and intercrossed their F₁ progeny, the F₂ ratio deviated very significantly from the 9:3:3:1 ratio. This can be attributed to the fact that:

1.	The genes are located on the X and Y chromosomes.
2.	Fruit fly has abnormal chromosomes.
3.	The genes are located on the X chromosome.
4.	The genes exhibit incomplete dominance.

89. The human liver fluke:

1.	is a cestode and requires two intermediate hosts – a cow and a pig
2.	is a trematode and requires two intermediate hosts – a chicken and a fish
3.	is a nematode and requires two intermediate hosts – a fish and a pig
4.	is a trematode and requires two intermediate hosts – a snail and a fish

90.

When compared with carbon dioxide, the partial pressure of oxygen in the air and its solubility in water is respectively:

1.	lower, lower	2.	lower, higher
3.	greater, lower	4.	greater, higher

91. The number of chromosomes in the male and female is/are not equal in:

I:	Humans
II:	Honeybees
III:	Grasshoppers
IV:	Drosophila

1. Only II
2. Only I and IV
3. Only II and III
4. I, II, III and IV

92.

What is transferred into the fallopian tube in ZIFT?

1.	Zygote only
2.	Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres
3.	Zygote or embryos with up to 8 blastomeres
4.	All of the above can be transferred during ZIFT

93.

The sporozoites that cause infection when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a person, are found in:
1. liver of the person
2. RBCs of mosquito
3. salivary glands of the mosquito
4. gut of the mosquito

94.

Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative
organism and mode of infection:

	Disease	Causative Organisms	Mode of Infection
1.	Malaria	Plasmodium vivax	Bite of male Anopheles mosquito
2.	Typhoid	Salmonella typhi	With inspired air
3.	Pneumonia	Streptococcus pneumonia	Droplet infection
4.	Elephantiasis	Wuchereria bancrofti	With infected water and food

95.

In frogs, vasa efferentia:

I:	are 100-120 in number that arise from testes
II:	enter the kidneys on their side and open into Bidder’s canal

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

96. Trace the correct path of passage of the sperm in male Rana tigrina:

1.	Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urogenital duct → Cloaca
2.	Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder’s canal → Ureter → Cloaca
3.	Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder’s canal → Urogenital duct → Cloaca
4.	Testes → Bidder’s canal → Kidney → Vasa efferentia → Urogenital duct → Cloaca

97.

Approximately seventy percent of carbon dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs:

1.	as bicarbonate ions
2.	in the form of dissolved gas molecules
3.	by binding to R.B.C
4.	as carbamino-haemoglobin

98. Each time the sodium-potassium pump functions, it actively transports:

1.	three sodium ions to the outside and two potassium ions to the inside of a cell.
2.	two sodium ions to the outside and three potassium ions to the inside of a cell.
3.	three sodium ions to the outside and two hydrogen ions to the inside of a cell.
4.	three potassium ions to the outside and two hydrogen ions to the inside of a cell.

99. A man has type AB blood and he marries a woman with type O blood. Two children are born to the couple and they also adopted one child. If child 1 has type A blood, child 2 has type B blood, and child 3 has type O blood, which child was adopted?
1. Child 1
2. Child 2
3. Child 3
4. Cannot be determined

100.

Assertion (A):	Repeated amplification of DNA in Polymerase Chain Reaction is achieved by the use of a thermostable DNA polymerase.
Reason (R):	Such DNA polymerase remains active during the high temperature-induced denaturation of double-stranded DNA, a step in Polymerase Chain Reaction.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False and(R) is True.

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