AIIMS 2011

In Young’s double-slit experiment carried out with wavelength λ=5000Å, the distance between the slits is 0.2 mm and the screen is 2 m away from the slits. The central maxima is at n = 0. The third maxima will be at a distance x (from central maxima) is equal to:
1. 5.0 cm
2. 0.5 cm
3. 4.67 cm
4. 1.5 cm

A gang capacitor is formed by interlocking a number of plates as shown in figure. The distance between the consecutive plates is 0.885 cm and the overlapping area of the plates is 5 cm². The capacity of the unit is

1. 1.06 pF
2. 4 pF
3. 6.36 pF
4. 12.72 pF

The freezer in a refrigerator is located at the top section so that

1. the entire chamber of the refrigerator is cooled quickly due to convection
2. the motor is not heated
3. the heat gained from the environment is high
4. the heat gained from the environment is low

A choke is preferred to a resistance for limiting current in AC circuit because

1. choke is cheap
2. there is no wastage of power
3. choke is compact in size
4. choke is a good absorber of heat

A thin prism P₁ of angle 4 ° and refractive index 1.54 ° is combined with another thin prism P₂ of refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation. The angle of P₂ is

1. 4 °
2. 5.33 °
_{3. 2.6 °}
4. 3 °

What will be the number of photons emitted per second by a 10 W sodium vapour lamp assuming that 90% of the consumed energy is converted into light [Wavelength of sodium light is 590 nm, and h = 6.63×10^-34 J –s]

1. 0.267×10¹⁸
2. 0.267×10¹⁹
3. 0.267×10²⁰
4. 0.267×10¹⁷

200 MeV of energy may be obtained per fission of U²³⁵. A reactor is generating 1000 kW of power. The rate of nuclear fission in the reaction is

1. 1000
2. 2×10⁸
3. 3.125×10¹⁶
4. 931

As shown in the figure a magnet is moved with a fast speed towards a coil at rest. Due to this induced emf, induced current and induced charge in the coil is E, I and Q respectively. If the speed of the magnet is doubled, the incorrect statement is-

1. E increases
2. I increases
3. Q remains same
4. Q decreases

Which one of the following is not made of soft iron?

1. Electromagnet
2. Core of transformer
3. Core of dynamo
4. Magnet of loudspeaker

10.

Two tangent galvanometer having coils of the same radius are connected in series. A current flowing in them produces deflection of 60 ° and 45 ° respectively. The ratio of the number of turns in the coils is

1. 4/3
2. (

11.

A bar magnet of magnetic moment 10⁴ J/T is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. The work done in rotating the magnet slowly from a direction parallel to a horizontal magnetic field of 4×10^-5 T to a direction of 60 ° from the field will be

1. 0.2 J
2. 2 J
3. 4.18 J
4. 2×10² J

12.

An ideal coil of 10 H is joined in serried with a resistance of 5 Ω and battery of 5 V, 2 s after joining the current flowing (in ampere) in the circuit will be

1. e^-1
2. (1-e^-1)
3. (1-e)
4. e

13.

A rocket is fired upward from the earth surface such that it creates an acceleration of 19.6 m/s². If after 5 s, its engine is switched off, the maximum height of the rocket from earth’s surface would be

1. 245 m
2. 490 m
3. 980 m
4. 735 m

14.

A 60 kg weight s dragged on a horizontal surface by a rope through a distance of 2m. If coefficient of friction is μ=0.5, the angle of rope with surface is 60 ° and g =9.8 m/s², then work done is

1. 294 J
2. 15 J
3. 588 J
4. 197 J

15.

A small uncharged metallic sphere is positioned exactly at a point midway between two equal and opposite point charges. If the sphere is slightly displaced towards the positive charge and released then

1. it will oscillate about its original position
2. it will move further towards the positive charge
3. its electric potential energy will decrease and kinetic energy will increase
4. its total energy remains constant but is non-zero

16.

A capacitor of capacitance 5μF is connected as shown in the figure. The internal resistance of the cell is 0.5 Ω. The amount of charge on the capacitor plate is

1. zero
2. 5μC
3. 10μC
4. 25 μC

17.

The resistance if a circular coil of 50 turns and 10 cm diameter is 5Ω. What must be the potential difference across that ends of the coil so as to nullify the earth’s magnetic field (H=0.314 gauss) at the centre of the coil? How should the coil be placed to achieve this result?

1. 0.5 V with plane of coil normal to the magnetic meridian
2. 0.5 V with plane of coil in the magnetic meridian
3. 0.25 V with plane of coil normal to the magnetic meridian
4. 0.25 V with plane of coil in the magnetic meridian

18.

If C and L denote the capacitance and inductance respectively, the units of LC are

1. [M⁰L⁰T²]
2. [M⁰L²T^-2]
3. [MLT^-2]
4. [M⁰L⁰T⁰]

19.

The K_α line from Molybdenum (atomic number = 42) has a wavelength of 0.7078Å. The wavelength of K_αline of zinc (atomic number = 30) will be

1. 1Å
2. 1.3872Å
3. 0.3541Å
4. 0.5Å

20.

A body of mass 0.5 kg is projected under gravity with a speed of 98 m/s at an angle of 60 ° with the horizontal. The change in momentum (in magnitude) of the body is

1. 24.5 N-s
2. 49.0 N-s
3. 98.0 N-s
4. 50.0 N-s

21.

The diameter of the objective of a telescope is 0.1 m and the wavelength of the light is 6000 Å. Its resolving power would be approximately
1.

22.

The dispersive powers of glasses of lenses used in an achromatic pair are in the ratio 5 : 3. If the focal length of the concave lens is 15 cm, then the nature and focal length of the other lend would be

1. convex, 9 cm
2. concave, 9 cm
3. convex, 25 cm
4. concave, 25 cm

23.

A charge Q is divided into two parts of q and Q-q. If the coulomb repulsion between them when they are separated is to be maximum, the ratio of

should be

1. 2
2. 1/2
3. 4
4. 1/4

24.

A rectangle vessel when full of water, takes 10 mint to be emptied through an orifice in its bottom. How much time will it take to be emptied when half filled with water?

1. 9 min
2. 7 min
3. 5 min
4. 3 min

25.

If there were no gravity, which of the following will not be there for a fluid?

1. Viscosity
2. Surface tension
3. Pressure
4. Archimedes’ upward thrust

26.

A = 4i + 4j – 4k and B = 3i + j + 4k, then angle between vectors A and B is

1. 180 °
2. 90 °
3. 45 °
4. 0 °

27.

Consider the following statements
(i) For a permanent magnet the area of a hysteresis loop is allowed to be large.
(ii) Coercively of the material in permanent magnets should be small.
Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. (i) but not (ii)
2. (ii) but not (i)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)

28.

Two capacitors of 10μF and 20μF are connected in series with a 30 V battery. The charge on the capacitors will be respectively

1. 100μ C, 100μC
2. 200 μC, 100 μC
3. 200 μC, 200 μC
4. 100 μC, 200 μC

29.

The magnetic field at P on the axis of a solenoid having 100 turns/m and carrying a current of 5 A is

1. 250μ₀
2. 500

μ₀
3. 500 μ₀
4. 250

μ₀

30.

In an isobaric process of an ideal gas. The ratio of heat supplied and work done by the system

The velocity of sound in air at NTP is 330 m/s. What will be its value when temperature is doubled and pressure is halved?

1. 330 m/s
2. 165 m/s
3. 330

m/s
4. 330/

m/s

32.

Doppler’s effect is sound in addition of relative velocity between source and observer or both are moving. Doppler effect in light depend only on the relative velocity of source and observer. The reason of this is

1. Einstein mass energy relation
2. Einstein theory of relativity
3. photoelectric effect
4. None of the above

33.

If EMF = 4 volt ω = 1000t volt is applied to an L-R circuit of inductance 3 mH and resistance 4Ω, the amplitude of current in the circuit is

1.

A
2. 1.0 A
3.

A
4. 0.8 A

34. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities \(I\) and \(4I\) superimpose. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are:

1. \(5I\) and \(I\)
2. \(5I\) and \(3I\)
3. \(3I\) and \(I\)
4. \(9I\) and \(I\)

35.

The X-ray tube s operated at 50 kV. The minimum wavelength produced is

1. 0.5Å
2. 0.75Å
3. 0.25Å
4. 1.0Å

36.

The energy gap between conduction band and valence band if of the order of 0.07 eV. It is a/an

1. insulator
2. conductor
3. Semiconductor
4. alloy

37.

The earth circles around the sun once a year. The work which would have to be done on the earth to bring it to rest relative to the sun is, (Ignore the rotation of earth about its own axis) given that the mass of the earth = 6×10²⁴ kg and the distance between sun and earth is 1.5×10⁸ km)

1. 2.7×10³⁰ J
2. 2.7×10³¹ J
3. -2×10³³ J
4. +2.7×10³³ J

38.

A longitudinal wave is represented by
x= x₀ sin2π

The maximum particle velocity will be four times the wave velocity, if

1. λ =

2. λ =2πx₀
3. λ =

4. λ =4πx₀

39.

The rate of dissipation of heat by a black body at temperature T is Q. What will be the rate of dissipation of heat by another body at temperature 2 T and emissivity 0.25?

1. 16 Q
2. 4 Q
3. 8 Q
4. 4.5 Q

40.

The radius of gyration of a body about an axis at a distance of 6 cm from its centre of mass is 10 cm. Then, its radius of gyration about a parallel axis through its centre of mass will be

1. 800 cm
2. 8 cm
3. 0.8 cm
4. 80 cm

41.

Assertion: The projectile has only vertical component of velocity at the highest point of its trajectory.
Reason: At the highest point only one component of velocity present.

42.

Assertion: Thrust on a rocket depends not only on the rate of decrease of mass.
Reason: Thrust also depends upon exhaust speed of the gases.

43.

Assertion: When a ball collides elastically with a floor, it rebounds with the same velocity as with it strikes.
Reason: Momentum of earth + ball system remains constant.

44.

Assertion: When a body accelerates down an incline rolling purely static friction force acts on the body.
Reason: Point of contact of the body with incline remain at rest.

45.

Assertion: A small drop of mercury is spherical but bigger drops are oval in shape.
Reason: surface tension of liquid decreases with increase in temperature.

46.

Assertion: C_p can be less than C_V.
Reason C_pC_V=R is valid only for ideal gases.

47.

Assertion: Bulk modulus of elasticity B represents incompressibility of the material.
Reason: B = , where symbols have their usual meaning.

48.

Assertion: To float, a body must displace liquid whose weight is greater than actual weight of the body.
Reason: During floating the body will experience no net downward force in that case.

49.

Assertion: It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance of the side.
Reason: Air surrounding the fire conducts, more heat upward.

50.

Assertion: The molecules of a monatomic gas has three degree of freedom.
Reason: The molecules of a diatomic gas has five degree of freedom.

51.

Assertion: It is a stationary wave, there is no transfer of energy.
Reason: There is no outward motion of the disturbance from one particle to adjoin particles in a stationary wave.

52.

Assertion: Though large number of free electrons are present in the metal. Yet there is no current in the absence of electric field.
Reason: In the absence of electric field electrons move randomly in all directions.

53.

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	The value of temperature coefficient of resistance is positive for metals.
Reason (R):	The temperature coefficient of resistance for the insulator is also positive.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	(A) is false but (R) is true.

54.

Assertion: Magnetic field due to an infinite straight conductor varies inversely as the distance from it.
Reason: The magnetic field at the centre of the circular coil in the following figure is zero.

55.

Assertion: The resistance of an ideal voltmeter should be infinite.
Reason: The lower resistance of voltmeters gives a reading lower than the actual potential difference across the terminals.

56.

Assertion: The centripetal forces and centrifugal forces never cancel out.
Reason: They do not act at the same time.

57.

Assertion: A quick collision between two bodies is more violent than a slow collision, even when the initial and final velocities are identical.
Reason: The momentum is greater in first case.

58.

Assertion: The length of day is slowly increasing.
Reason: The dominant effect causing a slowdown in the rotation of the earth is the gravitational pull of other planets in the solar system.

59.

Assertion (A):	On a decay, daughter nucleus shifts two places to the left from the parent nucleus.
Reason (R):	An alpha particle carried four units of mass.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	(A) is false but (R) is true.

60.

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	When base region has larger width, the collector current increases.
Reason (R):	Electron hole combination in base result in increase of base current.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	(A) is false but (R) is true.

61.

Which of the following pair of transition metal ions have the same calculated values of magnetic moment?

1. Ti²⁺ and V²⁺
2. Fe²⁺ and Cu²⁺
3. Cr²⁺ and Fe²⁺
4. Co²⁺ and Ti²⁺

62.

A radioactive substance ₈₈X²²⁸ (IIA) emits 3α and 3β- particles to form ‘Y’. To which group of long form of the Periodic Table does ‘Y’ belong?

1. IVA
2. VA
3. VIA
4. VIIA

63.

Which of the following is not a conjugate acid-base pair?

1.

H₃PO₄
4.

64.

Parkinson’s disease is linked to abnormalities in the levels of dopamine in the body. The structure of dopamine is
1.

65.

The wavelength of a spectral line emitted by a hydrogen atom in the Lyman series is \(\frac{16}{15R}\)cm. What is the value of n_2:
(R = Rydberg constant)
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 1

66.

138 g of ethyl alcohol is mixed with 72 g of water. The ratio of mole fraction of alcohol to water is:
1. 3 : 4
2. 1 : 2
3. 1 : 4
4. 1 : 1

67.

Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?

1. Polythene
2. Bakelite
3. PHBV
4. PVC

68.

Consider the following reactions:

‘A’ and ‘B’ ,respectively, in the above reactions are:
1. CH₃COOC₂H₅, C₂H₅OH

2. CH₃ CHO, C₂H₅OH

3. C₂H₅OH, CH₃ CHO

4. C₂H₅OH, CH₃ COOC₂H₅

69.

Which one of the following noble gases is used in miner’s cap lamps?

1. Helium
2. Neon
3. Argon
4. Krypton

70.

The following are some statements related to VA group hydrides,
I. Reducing property increases from NH₃ to BiH₃
II. Tendency to donate lone pair decreases from NH₃ to BiH₃
III. Thermal stability of hybrids decreases from NH₃ to BiH₃
IV. Bond angle of hydrides decreases from NH₃ to BiH₃
The correct statements are

1. I, II, III and IV
2. I, III and IV
3. I, II and IV
4. I and IV

71.

Which of the following is not tetrahedral?
1.

72.

An organic compound ‘X’ on treatment with pyridinium chloro chromate in dicholoromethane gives compound ‘Y’.
Compound ‘Y’ reacts with I₂ and alkali to form triiodomethane.
The compound ‘X’ is:
1. C₂H₅OH

2. CH₃CHO

3. CH₃COCH₃

4. CH₃COOH

73.

Which of the following is not a peroxy acid?

1. Perphosphoric acid
2. Pernitric acid
3. Perdisulphuric acid
4. Perchloric acid

74.

Which of the following is not correct?

1. Milk is a naturally occurring emulsion.
2. Gold sol is a lyophilic sol.
3. Physical adsorption decreases with rise in temperature.
4. Chemical adsorption is unilayered.

75.

Which one of the following species is diamagnetic in nature?
1.

3. H₂
4.

76.

Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at 1000 °C to furnish aluminium metal (Atomic mass = 27 u; 1 F = 96500 C). The cathode reaction is
Al³⁺ + 3e^-→ Al⁰
To prepare 5.12 kg if aluminium metal by this method would require

1. 5.49×10¹C of electricity
2. 5.49×10⁴ C of electricity
3. 1.83×10⁷C of electricity
4. 5.49×10⁷C of electricity

77.

The solubility product of a salt having the general formula MX₂, in water is 4×10^-12. The concentration of M²⁺ ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is:
1. 4.0×10^-10 M
2. 1.6×10^-4 M
3. 1.0×10^-4 M
4. 2.0×10^-6 M

78.

A reaction involving two different reactants can never be:
1. Bimolecular reaction.
2. Second-order reaction.
3. First-order reaction.
4. Unimolecular reaction.

79.

During the process of electrolytic refining of copper, some metals present as impurity settle as ‘anode mud’. These are

1. Fe and Ni
2. Ag and Au
3. Pb and Zn
4. Se and Ag

80. Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum :

1.	Frequency	2.	Intensity
3.	Both (1) and (2)	4.	Neither (1) nor (2)

81.

Based on lattice energy and other considerations, which one of the following alkali metal chlorides is expected to have the highest melting point?

1. RbCl
2. KCl
3. NaCl
4. LiCl

82.

Heating mixture of Cu₂O and Cu₂S will give

1. Cu₂SO₃
2. CuO + CuS
3. Cu+SO₃
4. Cu + SO₂

83.

A schematic plot of ln K_eq versus inverse of temperature for a reaction is shown below

The reaction must be

1. highly spontaneous at ordinary temperature
2. one with negligible enthalpy change
3. endothermic
4. exothermic

84.

Calomel (Hg₂Cl₂) on reaction with ammonium hydroxide gives

1. HgO
2. Hg₂O
3. NH₂-Hg-Hg-Cl
4. HgNH₂Cl

85.

The IUPAC name of the coordination compound K₃[Fe(CN)₆] is

1. tripotassium hexacyanoiron (II)
2. potassium hexacyanoiron (II)
3. potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)
4. potassium hexacyanoferrate (II)

86.

Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism?

1. [Co(CN)₆]^3-
2. [Cr(C₂O₄)₃]^3-
3. [ZnCl₄]^2-
4. [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺

87.

The best reagent to convert pent-3-en-2-ol into pent-3-en-2-one is

1. pyridinium chloro-chromate
2. chromatic anhydride in glacial acetic acid
3. acidic dichromate
4. acidic permanganate

88.

A codon has a sequence of A and specifies a particular B that is to be incorporated into a C. What are?A, B, C

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

89.

The correct statement among the following regarding the hydrogen atom is:

1.	3s, 3p and 3d-orbitals: all have the same energy.
2.	3s and 3p-orbitals are of lower energy than 3d-orbital.
3.	3p-orbital is lower in energy than 3d-orbital.
4.	3s-orbital is lower in energy than 3p-orbital.

90.

p-cresol reacts with chloroform in alkaline medium to give a compound A which adds hydrogen cyanide to form another compound B. This latter on acidic hydrolysis gives chiral carboxylic acid. The structure of the carboxylic acid is
1.

91.

The bond dissociation energies of XY, X₂, and Y₂ (all diatomic molecules) are in the ratio of 1 : 1: 0.5 and \( \Delta H_{f}\) for the formation of XY is -200 kJ mol^-1. The bond dissociation energy of X₂ will be:
1. 400 kJ mol^-1

2. 300 kJ mol^-1

3. 200 kJ mol^-1

4. 800 kJ mol^-1

92.

t_1/4 can be taken as the time taken for the concentration of a reactant to drop to \(\frac{3}{4}\) of its initial value. If the rate constant for a first-order reaction is k, the t_1/4 can be written as:
Given: log 4 = 0.6020 and log 3 = 0.4771)

1.	0.75/k	2.	0.69/k
3.	0.29/k	4.	0.10/k

93.

The number of sodium atoms in 2 moles of sodium ferrocyanide are:

1.	12×10²³	2.	26×10²³
3.	34×10²³	4.	48×10²³

94.

In the given reaction, H₂O₂ acts as
Ag₂O+H₂O₂→2Ag+H₂O+O₂,
1. reducing agent
2. oxidising agent
3. bleaching agent
4. None of these

95.

Which of the following is used widely in the manufacture of lead storage battery?

1. Arsenic
2. Lithium
3. Bismuth
4. Antimony

96.

Two solutions of a substance (non electrolyte) are mixed in the following manner: 480 mL of 1.5 M first solution +520 mL of 1.2 M second solution.
What is the molarity of the final mixture?

1. 2.70 M
2. 1.344 M
3. 1.50 M
4. 1.20 M

97.

The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed by the reaction between Kl and acidified potassium dichromate solution is

1. +3
2. +2
3. +6
4. +4

98.

The weight of iron which will be converted into its oxide (Fe₃O₄) by the action of 18 g of steam on it will be (At. Wt. of Fe=56)

1. 168 g
2. 84 g
3. 42 g
4. 21 g

99.

What is the work done during the isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from 10 atm to 1 atm at 300 K?
1. 4938.8 J
2. 4138.8 J
3. 5744.1 J
4. 6257.2 J

100.

When alkyl halide is heated with dry Ag₂O, it produces

1. ester
2. ether
3. ketone
4. alcohol

101.

Number of atoms of calcium that will be deposited from a solution of CaCl₂ by a current of 25 mA flowing for 60 seconds will be:

1.	4.68×10¹⁸	2.	4.68×10¹⁵
3.	4.68×10¹²	4.	4.68×10⁹

102.

Assertion: is less acidic than
Reason: F exerts better + mesomeric effect than Cl.

103.

Assertion: Phenoxide ion on treatment with active alkyl halide (e.g., CH₂=CH-CH₂Cl) gives two products viz. O-substituted and C-substituted.
Reason: Phenoxide ion is an ambident nucleophile.

104.

Assertion: K, Rb and Cs form superoxides.
Reason: The stability of the superoxides increases from ‘K’ to ‘Cs’ due to decrease in lattice energy.

105.

Assertion: A catalyst increase the rate of a reaction.
Reason: In presence of a catalyst, the activation energy of the reaction decreases.

106.

Assertion: NaCl is less soluble in heavy water than in ordinary water.
Reason: Dielectric constant of ordinary water is more than that of heavy water.

107.

Assertion: Equal moles of different substances contain same number of constituent particles.
Reason: Equal weights of different substances contain the same number of constituent particles.

108.

Assertion: The catalytic converter in the car’s exhaust system converts polluting exhaust gases into non-toxic gases.
Reason: Catalytic converter contains a mixture of transition metals and their oxides embedded in the inner support.

109.

Assertion: As a lead storage battery gets discharged density of electrolyte, present in it, decreases.
Reason: Lead and lead dioxide both react with sulphuric acid to form lead sulphate.

110.

Assertion: Atomic size of silver is almost equal to that of gold.
Reason: d-subshell has low penetration power and produce poor shielding.

111.

Assertion: Higher the molal depression constant of the solvent used, higher the freezing point of the solution.
Reason: Depression in freezing point does not depend on the nature of the solvent.

112.

Assertion: The dissolution of ammonia in water does not follow Henry’s law.
Reason: Ammonia undergoes ionisation in water as
NH₃ + H₂O NH₄⁺+ OH^-

113.

Assertion: H₂ molecule is more stable than HeH molecule
Reason: The anti-bonding electron in the molecule destabilise it.

114.

Assertion: pH of neutral solution is always 7
Reason: pH of a solution does not depend upon temperature.

115.

Assertion: In chemisorptions, adsorption keeps on increasing with temperature.
Reason: Heat keeps on providing more and more activation energy.

116.

Assertion The first ionisation enthalpy of Be is greater than that of B
Reason 2p-is lower in energy than 2s-orbital.

117.

Assertion: Nitriding is a process of heating steel in an atmosphere of nitrogen.
Reason: Steel becomes brittle after nitriding.

118.

Assertion: Both Grinard reagent and dialkyl cadmium react with acid chlorides to form tert-alcohols.
Reason: Grignard reagents are as reactive as dialkyl cadmium.

119.

Assertion: Methyl cyanide has higher boiling point than methyl isocyanide.
Reason: Dipole moment of methyl cyanide is higher than that of methyl isocyanide.

120.

Assertion: Aspirin can cause ulcer in the stomach.
Reason: The ester group in aspirin gets hydrolysed to acid group in the stomach where the pH is 2

121.

Assertion: p-dichlorobenzene is less soluble in organic solvets than the corresponding o-isomer.
Reason: o-dichlorobenzene is polar while p-dichlorobenzene is not.

122.

Basis of life are

1. nucleic acids
2. proteins
3. nucleoproteins
4. amino acids

123.

Life span of parrot is

1. 140 years
2. 60 years
3. 80 years
4. 40 years

124.

Theory of ‘saltations’ was given by

1. G Mendel
2. Hugo de Vries
3. J B S Haldane
4. H J Miller

125.

The animal group which does not exist in Galapagos island is

1. Insects
2. Protozoa
3. Crustacea
4. Amphibia

126.

Protists obtain their food as

1. photosynthesizers only
2. chemosynthesizers
3. heterotrophs only
4. Both (A) and (C)

127.

Photosynthetic bacteria have

1. pigment system I
2. pigment system II
3. Both (A) and (B)
4. some other kind of pigments, P890

128.

Diatoms do not decay easily because

1. they have siliceous walls

2. their body is impervious to water
3. they are chitinous
4. they are abundant in saline soil

129.

One of these protozoans is threat to apiculture and sericulture

1. Eimeria

2. Ceratium
3. Nosema
4. Monocystis

130.

Ergotamine tartarate extracted from Claviceps, is used for cure of

1. bodyache
2. headache
3. fever
4. severe stomach pain

131.

What type of sorus is present in Nephrolepis?

1. Coenosorus
2. Simple
3. Mixed
4. None of these

132.

Pappus helps in dispersal of pollen in

1. Asteraceae

2. Brassicaceae
3. Malvacaceae
4. Solanaceae

133.

In which of the following groups are seeds present?

1. Psilophyta

2. Ginkgopsida
3. Lycopodiophyta
4. Bryophyta

134.

Match the columns.
Column I
(Vitamins)
A) B₁
B) D
C) E
D) C
Column II
(Deficiency disease)
1) Infertility
2) Scurvy
3) Beri-Beri
4) Bone formity

1. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2

2. A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4

3. A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
4. A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3

135.

One of the following is a connecting link between protozoans and poriferans

1. Cliona
2. Leucosolenia
3. Oscarella
4. Proterospongia

136.

The chordate features shared by the non-chordates are

1. bilateral symmetry
2. triploblastic condition and bilateral symmetry
3. metamerism
4. All of the above

137.

Which of the following ions are necessary for assembly of microtubules?

1. Na⁺ and K⁺

2. Ca²⁺ and Cl^-

3. Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺

4. Na⁺ and Ca²⁺

138.

If T = 40%, C = 10% then G = ? in a pollen cell

1. 40%
2. 10%
3. 91%
4. 20%

139.

Nickel contributes to the formation of which one of the following?

1. urease

2. dehydrogenase

3. rubisco protein
4. nitrate reductase

140.

If a stock has 2n =48 and scion microspore mother cell has 2n = 24; then root cell and the microspores will have ….chromosomes respectively.

1. 12, 48
2. 48, 12
3. 24, 12
4. 24, 96

141.

The percentage of cell surface that is impenetrable for ions is

1. 1%
2. 99.9%
3. 90
4. 73%

142.

A fertilized egg of a plant has 40 chromosomes. The number of chromosomes present in the microspore mother cell is

1. 20
2. 40
3. 60
4. 80

143.

Match the columns.
Column I
(Scientists)
A) Stephan Hales
B) Ingen Housz
C) Von Mohl
D) Sach
Column II
(Discoveries)
1) Importance of light and chlorophyll
2) Presence of chlorophyll In plants
3) Product of Photosynthesis is starch
4) Air and light control

1. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3

2. A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
3. A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1
4. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1

144.

Genotypic and phenotypic ratio 1 : 2 : 1 in the offsprings explain the principle of

1. dominance
2. blending inheritance
3. recessiveness
4. All of the above

145.

Satellite of chromosome is

1. rich in RNA and deficient in DNA
2. rich in DNA and deficient in RNA
3. rich in proteins
4. lacks DNA

146.

Sickle cell anaemia is an example of

1. sex-linked inheritance
2. deficiency disease
3. autosomal heritable disease
4. infectious disease

147.

Translocase is an enzyme required for

1. DNA replication
2. RNA synthesis
3. initiation of protein synthesis
4. protein synthesis chain elongation

148.

Feathery stigma belongs to

1. wheat
2. pea
3. Datura
4. Caesalpinia

149.

Inflorescence of Liliaceae is

1. actionmorphic
2. trimerous
3. pentamerous
4. imperfect

150.

Bone marrow is absent in

1. reptilia
2. amphibia
3. fishes
4. birds

151.

The property of semipermeability belongs to

1. cell wall
2. plasma membrane
3. mitochondria only
4. None of the above

152.

Translocation of photosynthetic end products in sieve tubes is

1. 3-5 mm/h
2. 3-5 cm/h
3. 1-5 cm/h
4. 60-100 cm/h

153.

Epidermis is specialized for

1. respiration
2. absorption
3. protection
4. All of these

154.

The pH of stomach is 1.6, then which enzyme will digest protein?

1. Trypsin
2. Pepsin
3. Amylase
4. Erypsin

155.

The normal type of embryo sac is 8-nucleated and

1. 8-celled
2. 7- celled
3. 6-celled
4. 5-celled

156.

Embryo sac is

1. megaspore
2. microgametophyte
3. female gametophyte
4. megasporangium

157.

The type of immunoglobulin present in the foetus are

1. IgD
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

158.

For better survival of human Indian population, which is the most important step?

1. Afforestation
2. Reduction in population density
3. conservation of wild life including tribals
4. Both (A) and (C)

159.

Leukaemia is cause by

1. Ca 40
2. Sr 90
3. caesium
4. iodine

160.

Rice wine is

1. beer
2. wine
3. cider
4. sake

161.

An autoimmune disease is

1. B-lymphocytes induced
2. haemophillia
3. myasthenia gravis
4. None of the above

162.

Assertion: In alcoholic drink, the alcohol is converted into glucose in liver.
Reason: Liver cells are able to produce glucose from alcohol by back fermentations.

163.

Assertion: Wrapping food with newspaper can be dangerous.
Reason: It is rich in cadmium which is toxic to health.

164.

Assertion: Tertiary consumers are green plants.
Reason: Microconsumers break down the dead protoplasm into simpler ones. They are last in the sequence of food chain.

165.

Assertion: In a graafian follicle, the primary oocyte and the follicle cells may be considered sibling cells.
Reason: Both are derived from oogonia.

166.

Assertion: Old ladies are prone to osteoporosis.
Reason: Oestrogen also maintain calcium balance in the bones and blood.

167.

Assertion: Phylloclades are adaptation for xerophytic habitats.
Reason: Ruscus, Casuarina have reduced or modified leaves to avoid transpiration.

168.

Assertion: In the hydrophytes, the xylem is not differentiated into different types of cells.
Reason: Xylem provides support and helps in the conduction of water which are not very important in hydrophytes.

169.

Assertion: Gene expression is a molecular mechanism by which a gene expresses a phenotype.
Reason: Structural genes are controlled by control genes.

170.

Assertion: Neurohypophysis is situated in the cells of stomach.
Reason: Neurohypophysis releases vasopressin and oxytocin.

171.

Assertion: Cataract is the condition on which lens become completely opaque.
Reason: In the condition, a person can see only near objects.

172.

Assertion: Sinus venosus is a thin walled sac with little muscular tissue in primitive heart.
Reason: It receives venous blood through the hepatic veins.

173.

Assertion: B-cells (Beta cells) account for about 80% of the total number of islet cells.
Reason: They secrete a hormone called thyroxine.

174.

Assertion: Monotropa grows in pine forests with the roots of pines.
Reason: Saprophytes obtain their nutrition from dead organic matter.

175.

Assertion: outermost layer of the bone is a fibrous connective tissue.
Reason: Matrix of bone is composed of protein ossein.

176.

Assertion: Perennials live for many years.
Reason: Their life cycle do not end with seed production.

177.

Assertion: ‘Reindeer moss’ is used by reindeer, caribou and other animals as fodder.
Reason: Reindeer moss is found in rainforests.

178.

Assertion: TMV is a rod-shaped virus.
Reason: It is made up of a protein coat and RNA.

179.

Assertion: Japanese prepare a popular vegetable ‘Kombu’ prepared from Laminaria.
Reason: Laminaria is a fungus.

180.

Assertion: Mesophytes show well-developed root system.
Reason: Mesophytes depend on the moderate supply of water which they draw from their root.

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