JIPMER MBBS 2012

1. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a cross-section of \(8\) cm² one end of which has \(40\) fine holes each of area \(10^{-8}\) m². If the liquid flows inside the tube with a speed of \(0.15\) m min^-1 the speed with which the liquid is ejected through the holes is:
1. \(50\) m/s
2. \(5\) m/s
3. \(0.05\) m/s
4. \(0.5\) m/s

Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of maximum kinetic energy \((E_k)\) of the emitted electrons with frequency \(\nu\) in photoelectric effect correctly?

1.		2.
3.		4.

A vessel of height \(2~d\) is half filled with a liquid of refractive index \(\sqrt2\) and the other half with a liquid of refractive index \(n\) (the given liquids are immiscible). Then, the apparent depth of the inner surface of the bottom of the vessel (neglecting the thickness of the bottom of the vessel) will be:
1. \(\frac{n}{d(n+\sqrt{2})}\)
2. \(\frac{d(n+\sqrt{2})}{n \sqrt{2}}\)
3. \(\frac{\sqrt{2} n}{d(n+\sqrt{2})}\)
4. \(\frac{n d}{d+\sqrt{2} n}\)

4. A shell of mass \(20\) kg at rest explodes into two fragments whose masses are in the ratio \(2:3.\) The smaller fragment moves with a velocity of \(6\) m/s. The kinetic energy of the larger fragment is:
1. \(96\) J
2. \(216\) J
3. \(144\) J
4. \(360\) J

An electric bulb has a rated power of \(50\) W at \(100\) V. If it is used on an AC source \(200\) V, \(50\) Hz, a choke has to be used in series with it. This choke should have an inductance of:
1. \(0.1\) mH
2. \(1\) mH
3. \(0.1\) H
4. \(1.1\) H

In Young's double slit experiment with sodium vapour lamp of wavelength \(589\) nm and the slits \(0.589\) mm apart, the half angular width of the central maximum is:
1. \(sin^{-1} (0.01)\)
2. \(sin^{-1} (0.0001)\)
3. \(sin^{-1} (0.001)\)
4. \(sin^{-1} (0.1)\)

A parallel plate capacitor with air as the dielectric has capacitance \(C.\) A slab of dielectric constant \(K\) having the same thickness as the separation between the plates is introduced so as to fill one-fourth of the capacitor as shown in the figure. The new capacitance will be:

1. \((K+3)\frac C4\)
2. \((K+2)\frac C4\)
3. \((K+1)\frac C4\)
4. \(\frac{KC}{4}\)

Three concurrent co-planar forces \(1\) N, \(2\) N and \(3\) N acting along different directions on a body.
Choose the correct statement:

1.	can keep the body in equilibrium if \(2\) N and \(3\) N act at right angle.
2.	can keep the body in equilibrium if \(1\) N and \(2\) N act at right angle.
3.	cannot keep the body in equilibrium.
4.	can keep the body in equilibrium in \(1\) N and \(3\) N acts at an acute angle.

The work done by force acting on a body is as shown in the graph. The total work done in covering an initial distance of \(20\) m is:

1. \(212.5\) J
2. \(200\) J
3. \(400\) J
4. \(175\) J

10.

Horizontal tube of non-uniform cross-section has radii of \(0.1\) m and \(0.05\) m respectively at M and N. For a streamlined flow of the liquid, the rate of liquid flow is:

1.	changing continuously with time
2.	greater at M than at N
3.	greater at N than at M
4.	same at M and N

11.

A coil of \(n\) number of turns is wound tightly in the form of a spiral with inner and outer radii \(a\) and \(b\) respectively. When a current of strength \(I\) am passed through the coil, the magnetic field at its centre is:
1. \(\frac{\mu_{_0}nI}{(b-a)}\log_e\frac ab\)
2. \(\frac{\mu_{_0}nI}{2(b-a)}\)
3. \(\frac{\mu_{_0}nI}{b}\)
4. \(\frac{\mu_{_0}nI}{2(b-a)}\log_e\frac ba\)

12.

A certain vector in the xy-plane has an x-component of \(4\) m and a y-component of \(10\) m. It is then rotated in the xy-plane so that its x-component is doubled. Then, its new y-component will be: (approximately)
1. \(20\) m
2. \(7.2\) m
3. \(5.0\) m
4. \(4.5\) m

13.

A police party is moving in a jeep at a constant speed \(v.\) They saw a thief at a distance \(x\) on a motorcycle which is at rest. The moment the police saw the thief, the thief started at constant acceleration which of the following relations is true if the police is able to catch the thief?
1. \(v^2<ax\)
2. \(v^2<2ax\)
3. \(v^2\geq 2ax\)
4. \(v^2=ax\)

14.

If two soap bubbles of different radii are connected by a tube, then:

1.	air flows from the bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till sizes become equal.
2.	air flows from the bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till sizes are interchanged.
3.	air flows from smaller bubbles to bigger ones.
4.	there is no flow of air.

15.

The thermo emf of a hypothetical thermocouple varies with the temperature \(\theta\) of the hot junction as \(E=a\theta+b\theta^2\) in volts, where the ratio is \(\frac ab\) is \(700~^\circ \mathrm{C}.\) If the cold junction is kept at \(0~^\circ \mathrm{C},\) then the neutral temperature is:

1.	\(700~^\circ \mathrm{C}\)
2.	\(1400~^\circ \mathrm{C}\)
3.	\(-350~^\circ \mathrm{C}\)
4.	No neutral temperature is possible for this thermocouple.

16.

A launching vehicle carrying an artificial satellite of mass \(m\) is set for launch on the surface of the earth of mass \(M\) and radius \(R.\) If the satellite is intended to move in a circular orbit of radius \(7R,\) the minimum energy required to be spent by the launching vehicle on the satellite is:
(Gravitational constant= \(G\))
1. \(\frac{GMm}{R}\)
2. \(-\frac{13GMm}{14R}\)
3. \(\frac{GMm}{7R}\)
4. \(-\frac{GMm}{14R}\)

17.

The two lenses of an achromatic doublet should have:

1.	equal powers
2.	equal dispersive powers
3.	equal ratio of their power and dispersive power
4.	sum of the product of their powers and dispersive power equal to zero

18.

If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young's modulus of steel and brass wires shown in the figure are \(a,\) \(b\) and \(c\) respectively, the ratio between the increase in lengths of brass and steel wires would be:

1. \( \frac{{b}^{2}a}{2c}\)
2. \( \frac{bc}{2{a}^{3}}\)
3. \( \frac{{ba}^{2}}{2c}\)
4. \( \frac{a}{2{b}^{2}c}\)

19.

A soap bubble of radius \(r\) is blown up to form a bubble of radius \(2r\) under isothermal conditions. If \(T\) is the surface tension of the soap solution, the energy spent in the blowing is:
1. \(3\pi Tr^2\)
2. \(6\pi Tr^2\)
3. \(12\pi Tr^2\)
4. \(24\pi Tr^2\)

20.

A current of \(1.6\) A is passed through a solution of CuSO₄. How many Cu⁺⁺ ions are liberated in one minute? (Electronic charge= \(1.6\times10^{-19}\) C)
1. 3 × 10²⁰
2. 3 × 10¹⁰
3. 6 × 10²⁰
4. 6 × 10¹⁰

21.

A magnetic field exerts no force on:

1.	a magnet
2.	an unmagnetised iron bar
3.	a moving charge
4.	stationary charge

22.

In an \(LCR\) circuit inductance is changed from \(L\) to \(L/2.\) To keep the same resonance frequency, \(C\) should be changed to:
1. \(2C\)
2. \(\frac C2\)
3. \(4C\)
4. \(\frac C4\)

23. The sound waves after being converted into electrical waves are not transmitted as such because:

1.	they travel with the speed of sound.
2.	the frequency is not constant.
3.	they can, heavily absorbed by the atmosphere.
4.	the height of antenna has to be increased several times.

24.

The tip of a needle does not give a sharp image on a screen. This is due to:
1. polarization
2. interference
3. diffraction
4. none of these

25.

An engine moving towards a wall with a velocity \(50\) m/s emits a note of \(1.2\) kHz. The speed of sound in air is \(350\) m/s. The frequency of the note after reflection from the wall as heard by the driver of the engine is:
1. \(2.4\) kHz
2. \(0.24\) kHz
3. \(1.6\) kHz
4. \(1.2\) kHz

26.

The surface temperature of the sun which has maximum energy emission at \(500\) nm is \(6000\) K. The temperature of a star which has maximum energy emission at \(400\) nm will be:
1. \(8500\) K
2. \(4500\) K
3. \(7500\) K
4. \(6500\) K

27.

The truth table given below is for: (A and B are the inputs, Y is the output)

A	B	Y
0	0	1
0	1	1
1	0	1
1	1	0

1. NOR
2. AND
3. XOR
4. NAND

28. Two rectangular blocks A and B of masses \(2\) kg and \(3\) kg respectively are connected by a spring of spring constant \(10.8\) Nm^-1 and are placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. Block A was given an initial velocity of \(0.15\) ms^-1 in the direction shown in the figure. The maximum compression of the spring during the motion is:

1. \(0.01\) m
2. \(0.02\) m
3. \(0.05\) m
4. \(0.03\) m

29.

\(0.1\) m³ of water at \(80 ~^\circ \mathrm{C}\) is mixed with \(0.3\) m³ of water at \(60 ~^\circ \mathrm{C}.\) The final temperature of the mixture is:
1. \(65 ~^\circ \mathrm{C}\)
2. \(70 ~^\circ \mathrm{C}\)
3. \(60 ~^\circ \mathrm{C}\)
4. \(75 ~^\circ \mathrm{C}\)

30.

\(y=3\sin\pi\Big(\frac t2-\frac x4\Big),\) represents an equation of a progressive wave, where \(t\) is in second and \(x\) is in meter. The distance travelled by the wave in \(5\) seconds is:
1. \(8\) m
2. \(10\) m
3. \(5\) m
4. \(32\) m

31.

A body of mass \(m_1=4~\mathrm{kg}\) moves at \(5i~\mathrm{m/s}\) and another body of mass \(m_2=2~\mathrm{kg}\) moves at \(10i~\mathrm{m/s}\). The kinetic energy of the centre of mass is:
1. \(\frac{200}{3}~\text J\)
2. \(\frac{500}{3}~\text J\)
3. \(\frac{400}{3}~\text J\)
4. \(\frac{800}{3}~\text J\)

32.

A wheel of radius \(0.4~\mathrm{m}\) can rotate freely about its axis as shown in the figure. A string is wrapped over its rim, and a mass of \(4~\mathrm{kg}\) is hung. An angular acceleration of \(8~\mathrm{rad/s^2}\) is produced in it due to the torque. Then, moment of inertia of the wheel is: (Take \(g=10\) ms^-2)

1. \(2~\mathrm{kg-m^2}\)
2. \(1~\mathrm{kg-m^2}\)
3. \(4~\mathrm{kg-m^2}\)
4. \(8~\mathrm{kg-m^2}\)

33. An object start sliding on a frictionless inclined plane and from the same height, another object starts falling freely. Then:

1.	both will reach with same speed
2.	both will reach with same acceleration
3.	both will reach in the same time
4.	none of the above

34.

A boy on a cycle pedals around a circle of \(20\) meters radius at a speed of \(20\) m/s. The combined mass of the body and the cycle makes with the vertical so that it may not fall is: (Take \(g=9.8\) m/s² )
1. \(60.25^\circ\)
2. \(63.90^\circ\)
3. \(26.12^\circ\)
4. \(30.00^\circ\)

35.

A coin is dropped in a lift. It takes time \(t_1\) to reach the floor when the lift is stationary. It takes time \(t_2\) when the lift is moving up with constant acceleration. Then, what is the relationship between \(t_1\) and \(t_2 ?\)
1. \(t_1>t_2\)
2. \(t_2>t_1\)
3. \(t_1=t_2\)
4. \(t_1>>t_2\)

36.

The engine of a jet aircraft applies a thrown force of \(10^5\) N during takeoff and causes the plane to attain a velocity of \(1\) km/s in \(10\) s. The mass of the plane is:
1. \(10^2\) kg
2. \(10^3\) kg
3. \(10^4\) kg
4. \(10^5\) kg

37. A stone weighing \(1\) kg and sliding on ice with a velocity of \(2\) m/s is stopped by friction in \(10\) s. The force of friction (assuming it to be constant) will be:
1. \(-20\) N
2. \(-0.2\) N
3. \(0.2\) N
4. \(20\) N

38. The potential energy of a body is given by \(U = A - Bx^2\) (where \(x\) is the displacement) the magnitude of the force acting on the particle is:
1. constant
2. proportional to \(x\)
3. proportional to \(x^2\)
4. inversely proportional to \(x\)

39.

When a ceiling fan is switched on, it makes \(10\) revolutions in the first \(3\) sec. Assuming a uniform angular acceleration, how many rotations it will make in the next \(3\) sec?
1. \(10\)
2. \(20\)
3. \(30\)
4. \(40\)

40.

A hollow sphere of volume \(V\) is floating on water surface with half immersed in it. What should be the minimum volume of water poured inside the sphere so that the sphere now sinks into the water?
1. \(\frac V2\)
2. \(\frac V3\)
3. \(\frac V4\)
4. \(V\)

41.

Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy level in an atom?
1. \(n=4,l=0,m=0,s=+\frac12\)
2. \(n=3,l=1,m=1,s=+\frac12\)
3. \(n=3,l=2,m=-2,s=+\frac12\)
4. \(n=3,l=0,m=0,s=+\frac12\)

42.

\(CH_3COOH\xrightarrow{~~~Br_2/P~~~}~Y~\xrightarrow[(ii)~H_3O^+~~]{(i)~KCN}~X\)
Here, \(X\) is:
1. glycolic acid
2. a-hydroxy propionic acid
3. succinic acid
4. malonic acid

43.

Acetic anhydride is prepared in the laboratory by heating sodium acetate with:
1. Ethyl chloride
2. acetyl chloride
3. Cone. Hp0 4
4. zinc dust

44.

For the homogeneous reaction,
\(4NH_3+5O_2~\rightleftharpoons~4NO+6H_2O\)
The equilibrium constant K, has the units:
1. Conc.⁺¹⁰
2. Conc.⁺¹
3. Conc.^-1
4. It is dimensionless

45. For the reaction,
\(NH_3+OCl^-~\longrightarrow~N_2H_4+Cl^-\)
Occurring in basic medium, the coefficient of N 2H4 in the balanced equation will be:
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

46.

Which one of the following has a coordinate bond?

1. NH4Cl
2. AlCl3
3. NaCl
4. Cl2

47.

Which of the following would exert maximum osmotic pressure?

1.	Decinormal aluminium sulphate
2.	Decinormal barium chloride
3.	Decinormal sodium chloride
4.	A solution obtained by mixing equal volumes of (2) and (3) and filtering

48.

Cow milk, an example of natural emulsion, is stabilized by:
1. Fat
2. Water
3. Casein
4. Mg²⁺ ions

49.

for a zero-order reaction:
1.

50.

The extraction of which of the following metals involves bessemerisation?

1. Fe
2. Ag
3. AI
4. Cu

51.

The correct order of decreasing first ionization energy is:

1. C > B > Be > Li
2. C > Be > B > Li
3. B > C > Be > Li
4. Be > Li > B > C

52.

Consider the following reaction,

What is Y?

1. Acetanilide
2. Benzinilide
3. Azobenzene
4. Hydrazobenzene

53.

Which of the following is most basic in nature?

1. NH₃
2. CH₃NH₂
3. (CH₃)₂NH
4. C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂

54.

An example of natural biopolymer is:
1. Teflon
2. nylon-66
3. Rubber
4. DNA

55.

Which of the following is known as inverted soap?

1. Pentaerythritol monostearate
2. Sodium stearyl sulphate
3. Trimethyl stearyl ammonium bromide
4. Ethoxylated nonylphenol

56.

Le-blanc process manufacture of:
1. Baking soda
2. Washing soda
3. Potash
4. Plaster of Paris

57.

Which one of these is not true for benzene?

1.	It forms only one type of monosubstituted product
2.	There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds
3.	The heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than its theoretical value
4.	The bond angle between carbon-carbon bonds is 120°

58.

The IUPAC name of acrylaldehyde is:
1. prop-2-en-1-al
2. propenylaldehyde
3. but-2-en-1-al
4. propenal

59.

The structures

represents:
1. Chain isomerism
2. Position isomerism
3. Chain as well as position isomerism
4. Functional isomerism

60.

Petrol for aviation purpose must contain:
1. Straight chain hydrocarbons
2. Aromatic hydrocarbons
3. Olefinic hydrocarbons
4. Highly branched chain paraffins

61.

The solubility product of Hg₂I₂ is equal to:
1.

62.

The number of atoms contained in one face-centred cubic unit cell of a monoatomic substance is:
1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 6

63.

In the first order reaction, 75% of the reactant gets disappeared in 1.386 h. The rate constant of the reaction is:
1. 3.0 x w-3 s^-1

2. 2.8 x 10-4 s^-1

3. 17.2 x w-3 s^-1

4. 1.8 x w-3 s^-1

64.

Moist hydrogen peroxide cannot be dried over conc. H₂SO₄ because:
1. it can catch fire

2. it is reduced by H₂SO₄

3. it is oxidized by H₂SO₄

4. it is decomposed by H₂SO₄

65.

Glauber's salt is:
1. Na₂S0₄.10H₂0

2. Na₂S₂0₃.5H₂0

3. CuSO4.5H₂0

4. Na₂B₂0₇.10H₂0

66.

the most basic element is:
1. Fluorine
2. Iodine
3. Chlorine
4. Bromine

67.

Propyne on passing through red hot copper tube forms:
1. Benzene
2. toluene
3. mesitylene
4. None of these

68.

Which one of the following is mainly responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer?

1. Methane
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Water
4. Chlorofluorocarbons

69.

On warming with silver powder, chloroform is converted into:
1. Acetylene
2. hexachloroethane
3. 1, 1, 2, 2-tetrachloroethane
4. Ethylene

70.

Ammonia is a Lewis base and it forms complexes with many cations. Which one of the following cations does not form a complex with ammonia?

1. Ag⁺
2. Cd²⁺
3. Cd²⁺
4. Pb²⁺

71.

Argol, a brown crust, formed during the fermentation of grape juice contains:
1. C0₂

2. Fused oil
3. Potassium hydrogen tartrate
4. Lye

72.

The structure of compound B is:
1.

73.

The pH value of 0.001 M aqueous solution of NaCl is:

1. 7
2. 4
3. 11
4. unpredictable

74.

Which buffer solution comprising of the following has its pH value greater than 7?

1. CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa
2. HCOOH + HCOOK
3. CH₃COONH₄
4. NH₄0H + NH₄Cl

75.

Which of the following has sp2-hybridisation?

1. C₂H₆
2. C₂H₄
3. BeCl₂
4. C₂H₂

76.

Hydrogen molecule differs from chlorine molecule in the following respect.

1.	Hydrogen molecule is non-polar but chlorine molecule is polar
2.	Hydrogen molecule is polar while chlorine molecule is non-polar
3.	Hydrogen molecules can form intermolecular hydrogen bonds but chlorine molecule does not
4.	Hydrogen molecules cannot participate in coordinate bond formation but chlorine molecule can

77.

The ratio of the difference in energy between the first and the second Bohr orbit to that between the second and the third Bohr orbit is:

1. 1/2
2. 1/3
3. 4/9
4. 27/5

78.

Graphite is a:

1. Molecular solid
2. Covalent solid
3. Ionic solid
4. Metallic solid

79.

Which one of the following transition metal ions is diamagnetic?

1. Co²⁺
2. Ni²⁺
3. Cu²⁺
4. Zn²⁺

80.

Which of the following metal carbonates decomposes on heating?

1. MgC0₃
2. Na₂C0₃
3. K₂C0₃
4. Rb₂C0₃

81.

Gel electrophoresis is used for:

1.	Cutting of DNA into fragments
2.	Separation of DNA fragments according to their size
3.	Construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors
4.	Isolation of DNA molecule

82.

Polysome is formed by:

1.	Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
2.	Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum
3.	A ribosome with several sub-units
4.	Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement

83.

Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant heparin?

1. Neutrophils
2. Basophils
3. Eosinophil
4. Monocytes

84.

Which one of the following in birds indicates their reptilian ancestry?

1.	Scales on their hind limbs
2.	Four-chambered heart
3.	Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract
4.	Eggs with a calcareous shell

85.

Select the incorrect pair.
1. Porifera
2. Coelenterata
3. Annelida
4. Monera

86.

Bilateral symmetry, metameric segmentation, coelom and open circulatory system are the features of:

1. Annelida
2. Arthropoda
3. Mollusca
4. Echinodermata

87.

Ancestor of man who first stood erect was:
1. Australopithecus
2. Cro-Magnon
3. Java-ape man
4. Peaking man

88.

Core zone, buffer zone and manipulation zone are found in:
1. national park
2. Sanctuary
3. Tiger reserve
4. Biosphere reserve

89.

Which insecticide is more hazardous to human health?

1. Rotenone
2. Pyrethrum
3. DDT
4. Humulin

90.

Universal donor is:
1. A
2. O
3. AB
4. B

91.

One of these is not concerned with wildlife conservation:
1. IVF
2. IUCN
3. WWF
4. IWL

92.

Largest tiger population is found in:
1. Sunder ban National Park
2. Corbett National Park
3. Ranthambore National Park
4. Kanha National Park

93.

Genetic material found in Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is:
1. Double-stranded RNA
2. Single-stranded RNA
3. Double-stranded DNA
4. Single-stranded DNA

94.

Gigantism and acromegaly are due to:
1. Hypothyroidism
2. Hyperthyroidism
3. Hypopituitarism
4. Hyperpituitarism

95.

If a child is of the O-blood group and his father is of the B-blood group, the genotype of the father is:
1. I⁰I⁰

2. I^AI^B

3. I⁰I^B

4. I⁰I^A

96.

Spermatogenesis is under the regulatory influence of:

1. ADH
2. FSH
3. LH
4. STH

97.

Which of the following can be controlled by using biopesticides?
1. Insects
2. Diseases
3. Weeds
4. All of these

98.

Which hormone is secreted in a woman if pregnancy has occurred?

1. Estrogen
2. Progesterone
3. Luteinizing hormone
4. Human chorionic gonadotropin

99.

Product of biotechnology is:
1. transgenic crops (GM crops)
2. humulin
3. biofertilizer
4. All of the above

100.

Phase common in aerobic and anaerobic respiration is:
1. Krebs' cycle
2. Glycolysis
3. glycogenolysis
4. ETS

101.

Oxyntic cells secrete:
1. HCl
2. Trypsin
3. NaOH
4. Pepsinogen

102.

Menstruation is due to sudden:
1. Reduction of FSH
2. Increase of LH
3. Reduction in estrogen and progesterone
4. None of the above

103.

Correctly matched set of phylum, class and example is:

1. Protozoa-Mastigophora-Entamoeba
2. Mollusca-Bivalvia-Pinctada
3. Arthropoda-Diplopoda-Scolopendra
4, Chordata-Cyclostomata-Phrynosoma

104.

Urea synthesis occurs in:

1. Kidney
2. Liver
3. Brain
4. Muscles

105.

Which is common to the kidney and skeleton in mammals?
1. Cortex
2. Medulla
3. Pelvis
4. Radius

106.

Which is regarded as a urinary bladder of an embryo?

1. Amnion
2. Allantois
3. Chorion
4. Yolk sac

107.

Deficiency of vitamin-B12 causes:

1. cheilosis
2. thalassemia
3. beri-beri
4. pernicious anaemia

108.

Blood is a kind of:

1. Areolar tissue
2. Dense Connective tissue
3. Fluid connective tissue
4. Reticular connective tissue

109.

Which of these is used to control the human population?
1. contraceptive pills (Estrogen + progesterone)
2. IUCD and MTP
3. Tubectomy and vasectomy
4. All of the above

110.

Addiction to alcohol causes:

1. Cirrhosis
2. Epilepsy
3. Neurosis
4. Psychosis

111.

The most primitive vertebrates are:

1. Ostracoderms
2. Cephalochordates
3. Placoderms
4. Cyclostomes

112.

Change in the number of body parts is called:
1. Continuous variation
2. Discontinuous variation
3. Meristic variation
4. Substantive variation

113.

Which has an additional X-chromosome?

1. Thrner's syndrome
2. Klinefelter's syndrome
3. Super female
4. Down's syndrome

114.

Origin of life occurred in:

1. Precambrian
2. Cenozoic
3. Palaeozoic
4. Mesozoic

115.

Branch of zoology dealing with the study of fishes is called:
1. Arthrology
2. Ichthyology
3. Saurology
4. Herpetology

116.

Theory of continuity of germplasm was propounded by:

1. Mendel
2. Lamarck
3. Weismann
4. Haeckel

117.

Which extra embryonic membrane in humans prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the uterus?

1. Chorion
2. Allantois
3. Yolk sac
4. Amnion

118.

The most active phagocytic white blood cells are:
1. Neutrophils and eosinophils
2. Lymphocytes and macrophages
3. Eosinophil and lymphocytes
4. Neutrophils and monocytes

119.

During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of:

1. K⁺ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
2. Na⁺ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
3. K⁺ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
4. Na⁺ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid

120.

Darwin's finches are an excellent example of:

1. Adaptive radiation
2. Seasonal migration
3. Brood parasitism
4. Connecting links

121.

In which one of the following, the male and female gametophytes don't have a free-living independent existence?
1. Pteris
2. Funaria
3. Polytrichum
4. Cedrus

122.

A transgenic food crop, which may help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing countries is:

1. Flavr Savr tomatoes
2. Starlink maize
3. Bt soyabean
4. Golden rice

123.

Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop from:
1. phellogen
2. plerome
3. periblem
4. Dermatogen

124.

Nitrogen-fixation in root nodules of Alnus is brought about by:

1. Bradyrhizobium
2. Clostridium
3. Frankia
4. Azorhizobium

125.

A mature pollen grain of Pinus has:

1. 2 cells
2. 3 cells
3. 4 cells
4. 5 cells

126.

Polyploidy can be induced by the application of:

1. auxin
2. kinetin
3. Colchicine
4. ethylene

127.

Quantasome is present in:
1. Chloroplast
2. mitochondria
3. Golgi body
4. lysosome

128.

In mitochondria, enzyme cytochrome oxidase is present in:
1. Outer membrane
2. Perimitochondrial space
3. Inner membrane
4. Matrix

129.

Which of the following bio-engineered bacteria is utilized for cleaning of marine oil slicks?

1. Escherichia coli
2. Pseudomonas syringae
3. Pseudomonas putida
4. Rhizoctoniasolani

130.

Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the correct meaning of the given word and mark the appropriate answer in the Answer Sheet.
Felicity:
1. prosperity
2. honesty
3. bliss
4. sorrow

131.

Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the correct meaning of the given word and mark the appropriate answer in the Answer Sheet.
Irreproachable:
1. remarkable
2. extraordinary
3. faultless
4. immense

132.

Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the correct meaning of the given word and mark the appropriate answer in the Answer Sheet.
Knave:
1. emperor
2. enchanter
3. soldier
4. scoundrel

133.

Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the correct meaning of the given word and mark the appropriate answer in the Answer Sheet.
Frontier:
1. edge
2. landmark
3. boundary
4. corner

134.

Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the correct meaning of the given word and mark the appropriate answer in the Answer Sheet.
Rout:
1. death
2. defeat
3. loss
4. crash

135.

Choose the word opposite meaning to the given word and mark the appropriate answer in the Answer Sheet. Niggardly:
1. hastily
2. lavishly
3. radiant
4. gorgeously

136.

Choose the word opposite meaning to the given word and mark the appropriate answer in the Answer Sheet. Melodious:
1. harmonious
2. tuneless
3. odious
4. mellifluous

137.

Choose the word opposite meaning to the given word and mark the appropriate answer in the Answer Sheet. Advanced:
1. progressed
2. outpaced
3. receded
4. retarded

138.

In these questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is wrongly spelt. Find the word and indicate it in the Answer Sheet. In these questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is wrongly spelt. Find the word and indicate it in the Answer Sheet.
1. quadruple
2. quagmire
3. quadrangle
4. quadrant

139.

140.

Directions: In these questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is wrongly spelt. Find the word and indicate it in answer Sheet. In these questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is wrongly spelt. Find the word and indicate it in answer Sheet.
1. reference
2. preference
3. difference
4. performance

141.

Directions: In these questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is wrongly spelt. Find the word and indicate it in Answer Sheet. In these questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is wrongly spelt. Find the word and indicate it in Answer Sheet.
1. agreeably
2. cruelly
3. doubtfully
4. fatally

142.

Directions: Four alternatives are given for the bold words of given idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the bold words of given idiom/phrase and mark the appropriate answer in the Answer Sheet. His parents cut him off, without a shilling
1. disinherited him
2. snubbed him
3. gave him only a shilling
4. sent him away with a shilling

143.

Directions: Four alternatives are given for the bold words of given idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the bold words of given idiom/phrase and mark the appropriate answer in the Answer Sheet. The carefully worked-out plan fell through because of an unexpected event
1. came out successfully
2. had a steep fall
3. was shattered
4. failed

144.

Directions: Four alternatives are given for the bold words of given idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the bold words of given idiom/phrase and mark the appropriate answer in the Answer Sheet. He has too many irons in the fire
1. is engaged in too many enterprises at the same time
2. has several problems
3. has many ideas in his head
4. has a fire burning constantly in his house

145.

Directions: Four alternatives are given for the bold words of given idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the bold words of given idiom/phrase and mark the appropriate answer in the Answer Sheet. We wanted to give Rita a surprise party but John let the cat out of the bag
1. spoilt the party with a cat
2. gave her a party himself
3. told her about it unintentionally
4. prevented her from attending it

146.

Directions: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for given words/sentence and mark the appropriate option in the Answer Sheet. Study of insects is
1. Etymology
2. Entomology
3. Ecology
4. Embryology

147.

Directions: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for given words/sentence and mark the appropriate option in the Answer Sheet. Careful in the spending of money, time etc.
1. Punctual
2. Economical
3. Miserly
4. Calculative

148.

Directions: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for given words/sentence and mark the appropriate option in the Answer Sheet. Reproducing or memorizing word for word
1. Verbatim
2. Verbose
3. Verbiage
4. Verbalism

149.

Directions: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for given words/sentence and mark the appropriate option in the Answer Sheet. That which cannot be captured
1. Untakable
2. Ungrippable
3. Impregnable
4. Slippery

150.

Directions: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for given words/sentence and mark the appropriate option in the Answer Sheet. One who breaks the law
1. Aggressor
2. Politician
3. Transgressor
4. Pedestrian

151.

Directions: A part of the sentence is given in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c). Which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (d). Mark the appropriate option in the Answer Sheet. The way to solve the racial problem is by
1. because of
2. thanks to
3. on account of
4. No improvement

152.

Directions: A part of the sentence is given in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c). Which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (d). Mark the appropriate option in the Answer Sheet. He may be poor now but he appears to be rich.
1. to seem rich
2. rich to be
3. to have been rich
4. No improvement

153.

Directions: A part of the sentence is given in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c). Which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (d). Mark the appropriate option in the Answer Sheet. The suspected couple was taken away from the airport through a side entrance to the police station for interrogation.
1. whisked
2. rushed
3. guided
4. No improvement

154.

Directions: A part of the sentence is given in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c). Which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (d). Mark the appropriate option in the Answer Sheet. She left the room feeling contrite.
1. sorry for what she had done
2. rather ill
3. extremely irritated
4. No improvement

155.

I think the essence of wisdom is emancipation as far as possible, from the tyranny of the here and now.

P. If anyone could, he would hardly be able to remain alive.

Q. But it is possible to make a continual approach towards impartiality.

R. No one can view the world with complete impartiality.

S. This is, of course, a matter of degree.

6. It is this approach towards impartiality that constitutes growth in wisdom.
1. QRSP
2. RQPS
3. SRPQ
4. PRSQ

156.

But at the moment I glanced around at the crowd that had followed me.

P. It was immense crowd, two thousand at the least and growing every minute.

Q. They were watching me as they would watch a conjurer about to perform a trick.

R. I looked at the sea of yellow faces above the garish clothes-faces all happy and excited over this bit of fun, all certain that the elephant was going to be shot.

S. It blocked the road for a long distance on either side.

6. They did not like me, but with the magical rifle in my hands, I was momentarily worth watching.
1. RPQS
2. QSRP
3. SRPQ
4. PSRQ

157.

There are many roads into the world of books, but the way of fiction is probably the most common.

P. Then too the appeal of the story, whether told as a poem, play, history, biography or novel is primitive and strong.

Q. The reason is plain.

R. They are to us what epic poetry was to the Greeks and Romans, what the stage was to the Elizabethans.

5. The novel and the short story come closer to the experience. If the modern reader then any other form of contemporary writing.

6. Mankind's delight in stories is as timeless and universal as the art of the story teller.
1. QSRP
2. SRPQ
3. RSQP
4. PRSQ

158.

Nehru spent most part of his childhood in studies.

P. He rushed back to India and led an active political life joining hands with Gandhi.

Q. His studies went on uninterrupted abroad until he received a call from India.

R. He went to Cambridge to study.

5. But now and then, he could not help listening to political discussions in his house.

6. Till the end of his career, he made Gandhi his political master.
1. RSQP
2. SRQP
3. PQRS
4. SRPQ

159.

Venice is a strange and beautiful city in the North of Italy.

P. There are about four hundred old stone bridges joining the Islands of Venice.

Q. In this city, there are no motor-cars, no horses and no buses.

R. These small Islands are near one another.

S. It is not one Island but a hundred and seventeen Islands.

6. This is because Venice has no streets.
1. PQRS
2. RSPQ
3. SRPQ
4. PSQR

160.

We warned her ......... the danger
1. from
2. about
3. against
4. of

161.

We all laughed ............ the affair
1. over
2. about
3. for
4. on

162.

The chairman, as well as the members ??? to blame for this misfortune.
1. are
2. were
3. is
4. has

163.

The streets are lighted ........... electricity
1. with
2. by
3. on
4. in

164.

Homeopathic treatment, they say, cuts ........ the need for operation and risk from surgery.
1. off
2. out
3. down
4. away

165.

They prefer curving pathways because
1. they are inauspicious
2. they can walk easily
3. they stumble over straight ones
4. good spirits walk in them

166.

Abundance means
1. long life
2. happiness
3. plenty
4. permanent

167.

The Japanese parents plant a sapling at the time of birth of a child because
1. it is auspicious to plant a sapling
2. it is closely associated with the growth of the child
3. it gives longevity to the child
4. it gives happiness to the child

168.

According to the passage the Japanese are
1. superstitious
2. philosophical
3. lovers of nature
4. lovers of numerology

169.

The Japanese pathways tend to be
1. symbolic
2. beautiful
3. curved
4. straight

170.

Green potatoes are toxic due to:

1. phytoalexins
2. solanine
3. triazine
4. hormones

171.

Cells obtained from cancerous tumours are known as:

1. hybridomas
2. Myelomas
3. Lymphocytes
4. Monoclonal cells

172.

The plant of Tritium aestivum is:

1. haploid
2. diploid
3. tetraploid
4. hexaploid

173.

Which of the following is a total root parasite?

1. Cuscuta
2. Rafflesia
3. Santalum
4. Monotrapa

174.

Which of the following tissues consist of living cells?

1. Vessels
2. Tracheid’s
3. Companion cell
4. Sclerenchyma

175.

Which is a useful product of epidermal origin?

1. Saffron
2. Cotton fibers
3. Clove
4. Jute

176.

Fern spores are usually:

1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. Triploid
4. Tetraploid

177.

When pollen tube enters through micropyle, the process is called:

1. porogamy
2. chalazogamy
3. mesogamy
4. apogamy

178.

Outer wall of the pollen grain is made up of:

1. cellulose
2. sporopollenin
3. pectocellulose
4. lignin

179.

Nucleotides are formed by:

1. Purine, sugar and phosphate
2. Purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
3. Purine, pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
4. Pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate

180.

DNA replication occurs in:

1. G1-phase
2. S-phase
3. G2-phase
4. M-phase

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