Super Live Session - Unit-6 : Reproduction

1.

If detected early and treated properly, an example of a completely curable PROTOZOAN sexually Transmitted Infection [STI] is:

1.	Gonorrhoea	2.	Syphilis
3.	Chlamydiosis	4.	Trichomoniasis

2.

Semen analysis of the male partner of an infertile couple shows a low sperm count and the female partner does not show any abnormality. The Assisted Reproductive Technology to be used INITIALLY should be:
1. IVF – Embryo Transfer
2. Artificial Insemination – IUI
3. Surrogacy
4. Androgen therapy

3.

Identify the correct statement regarding the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act in India:

1.	Legalized in 1971, the amendment act was enacted in 2017.
2.	The recommendation of two registered medical practitioners is mandatory in all cases where MTP is allowed.
3.	Selective abortions after amniocentesis are legalized in India.
4.	MTP is not allowed even if there is a substantial risk of serious handicap in the child.

4.

What is incorrect regarding the oral contraceptive ‘Saheli’ produced by CDRI, Lucknow?

1.	Once a week pill	2.	Contains steroids
3.	Very few side effects	4.	High contraceptive value

5.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Contraceptive	Mechanism of action
1.	Barrier	Prevent fertilization
2.	Cu – IUDs	Cu ions suppress sperm motility and their fertilizing capacity
3.	Hormone releasing IUD	Prevent implantation and make cervix hostile but do not affect fertilization
4.	Oral combination pill	Prevent ovulation, implantation and alter the quality of cervical mucus

6.

All the following are features of an ideal contraceptive except:
1. No or least side effects
2. Very low failure rates
3. No interference in the sexual drive
4. Must be permanent

7.

The rise in the current population of India is not due to:
1. A decline in the infant mortality rate
2. A decline in the maternal mortality rate
3. A decline in the death rate
4. An increase in the birth rate

8.

Amniocentesis cannot be used in the prenatal diagnosis of:

1.	Hypothyroidism	2.	Sickle cell anemia
3.	Trisomy 21	4.	Klinefelter’s syndrome

9.

Consider the given statements:

I.	Gemmules are asexual reproductive structures in sponges.
II.	In Bryophyllum, vegetative propagation takes place by leaf buds.
III.	Marchantia is monoecious and Chara is dioecious.

The correct statements are:

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II, and III

10.

In animals exhibiting external fertilization:

1.	the offspring are less prone to predation
2.	the reproduction is independent of water
3.	there is synchrony between sexes for the release of gametes
4.	the number of female gametes are highly reduced

11.

In the life cycle haploid organisms like the green alga Spirogyra:
1. sexual reproduction cannot take place
2. meiosis never occurs
3. gametes are produced by mitosis
4. spores undergo meiosis

12.

With the advent of adverse conditions, an organism capable of reproducing both asexually and sexually, will most likely:

1.	shift to asexual mode of reproduction
2.	shift to sexual mode of reproduction
3.	equally reproduce by both modes
4.	die

13.

Consider the two statements:

I:	Eichhornia crassipes, the ‘terror of Bengal’ is an invasive weed.
II:	It was introduced in India for its beautiful flower and shape of leaves.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3.	I is correct but II is incorrect.
4.	I is incorrect but II is correct.

14.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding pollen grains in angiosperms?

1.	The exine is made up of sporopollenin.
2.	Generative cell divides meiotically to give rise to four gametes.
3.	In over 60% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at the 2-celled stage.
4.	Pollen grains of many species can cause severe allergies in humans.

15.

Tapetum:

1.	is the outermost layer in the wall of microsporangium
2.	helps in the protection of the pollen grains
3.	helps in dehiscence of anther
4.	has cells that generally have more than one nucleus

16.

Which of the following would be diploid in an angiosperm?
1. Cells of the pollen tetrad
2. Tube nucleus of the pollen tube
3. Functional megaspore
4. Megaspore mother cell

17.

An anatropous ovule attaches to the placenta by means of:

1.	Funicle	2.	Raphe
3.	Hilum	4.	Integuments

18.

Regarding the mature monosporic female gametophyte of angiosperms:

1.	The egg apparatus is at the chalazal end and the antipodals at the micropylar end.
2.	The central cell has a diploid polar nucleus.
3.	The structure is 8-celled and 7-nucleate.
4.	Three sequential mitotic divisions lead to its formation.

19.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Cleistogamous flowers	Invariable autogamous
2.	Geitonogamy	Functionally cross-pollination
3.	Wind pollination	Common in grasses
4.	Pollination by water	Seen in all aquatic plants

20.

To encourage cross-pollination, all the following devices will be useful in an angiosperm except:

1.	Self-incompatibility
2.	Asynchrony between pollen release and stigma receptivity
3.	Cleistogamous flowers
4.	Dioecy

21.

What guides the entry of the pollen tube though the micropyle into the embryo sac in the angiosperms?

1.	Antipodals	2.	Filiform apparatus in synergids
3.	The egg cell	4.	Polar nuclei

22.

During artificial hybridization in plant breeding experiments, if the female parent produces unisexual flowers:

1.	Emasculation should be done before the dehiscence of the anther
2.	Emasculation should be done after the dehiscence of the anther
3.	Emasculation is not needed
4.	They cannot be used in plant breeding experiments

23.

Double fertilization, a characteristic of angiosperms, results in the formation of:

1.	diploid zygote due to syngamy and triploid primary endosperm cell due to triple fusion
2.	triploid zygote due to triple fusion and diploid primary endosperm cell due to syngamy
3.	diploid zygote due to syngamy and haploid primary endosperm cell as it is formed pre-fertilization
4.	diploid zygote due to syngamy and diploid primary endosperm cell due to triple fusion

24.

Which of the given statement/s regarding embryogenesis in angiosperms is/are correct?

I:	Embryo develops at the chalazal end of the embryo sac where the zygote is situated.
II:	Development of a zygote usually occurs after some endosperm formation.

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

25.

Scutellum is:

1.	the cotyledon in seeds of the grass family
2.	globular embryo of a dicot
3.	persistent nucellus in a seed
4.	undifferentiated sheath enclosing root cap in monocot seeds

26.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding seeds in angiosperms?

1.	Mature seeds of peas and ground nuts are ex-albuminous.
2.	Perisperm is seen in the mature seeds of black pepper and beet.
3.	Dormant seeds have relatively higher moisture content than germinating seeds.
4.	As ovules mature into seeds, the ovary develops into a fruit.

27.

Fruits that develop without fertilization are called:
1. False fruits
2. Parthenocarpic
3. Parthenogenetic
4. Panmict

28.

Seeds offer several advantages to angiosperms. Which of the following is not one?

1.	The process is more dependable
2.	Better adaptive strategies for dispersal
3.	Protection of the young embryo
4.	Genetic uniformity

29.

Apomixis is:

I:	production of seeds without fertilization
II:	production of fruits without fertilization
III:	a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I is correct
3. Only III is correct
4. Only I and III are correct

30.

What is the advantage of converting hybrids into apomicts for farmers?

1.	Can be easily produced year after year
2.	Segregation of traits creates more diversity
3.	A great reduction in cost
4.	Overcoming inbreeding depression

31.

What is the advantage of the descent of testes in humans from the lower abdomen to the scrotum?

1.	Better thermo-regulation leading to effective spermatogenesis
2.	Ease of transport of the sperms to the urethra
3.	More storage space for sperms
4.	A decrease in the risk of prostatic hypertrophy

32.

The ducts of the seminal vesicles in humans:

1.	join the vas deferens to form the ejaculatory duct
2.	open into the ejaculatory ducts which continue into the urethra
3.	join each other and the common duct opens into the prostatic duct
4.	transport the stored sperms to the outside through the urethra

33.

The structure in the uterus that undergoes a cyclical change during the menstrual cycle is:
1. Myometrium
2. Endometrium
3. Perimetrium
4. Parametrium

34.

Alveoli in the mammary glands open into:
1. Lactiferous ducts
2. Mammary ampulla
3. Mammary tubules
4. Mammary ducts

35.

When comparing the process of spermatogenesis and oogenesis in humans, the similarity between them is in:

1.	The age at which the processes start in both sexes
2.	The size of the cells formed during the process
3.	The number of gametes each meiocyte produces
4.	The ploidy of the end products

36.

The withdrawal of which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for menstrual bleed?
1. Progesterone
2. Estrogen
3. FSH
4. LH

37.

During the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle:

1.	the Graafian follicle ruptures and is converted to corpus luteum
2.	the uterine endometrium regenerates
3.	estrogen secretion is at its lowest rate for the given cycle
4.	corpus luteum secretes large amount of progesterone

38.

The peak secretion of which of the following hormones does not occur just before ovulation during a normal menstrual cycle?

1.	LH	2.	FSH
3.	Progesterone	4.	Estrogen

39.

The direct cause of ovulation during the menstrual cycle is:

1.	A sharp fall in the levels of estrogen
2.	A dramatic rise in the secretion of FSH
3.	The beginning of the secretion of progesterone
4.	A surge in the secretion of LH

40.

The most common site of fertilization in humans is:
1. The infundibulum region of fallopian tube
2. The ampullary region of fallopian tube
3. The isthmic region of fallopian tube
4. The uterus

41.

What ensures that, almost always, only one sperm fertilizes the ovum?
1. Zona pellucida
2. Corona Radiata
3. Acrosome of the sperm
4. Hyaluronic acid surrounding the released ovum

42.

The primary oocyte divides to produce:

1.	A large diploid secondary oocyte and a small haploid first polar body
2.	A large haploid secondary oocyte and a small haploid first polar body
3.	A large diploid secondary oocyte and a small haploid second polar body
4.	A large haploid secondary oocyte and a small haploid secondary polar body

43.

The sex of the fetus is determined:

1.	at the time of fertilization by the type of sperm fertilizing the ovum.
2.	at the time of fertilization by the female parent as she always produces an egg with an X chromosome.
3.	at the time of implantation due to the secretion of TDF by the fetal testes.
4.	at the time of implantation due to the secretion of ODF by the fetal testes.

44.

Implantation of the developing embryo occurs:

1.	at the morula stage on the wall of oviduct, 3rd / 4th day post fertilization
2.	at the morula stage on the wall of uterus, 3rd / 4th day post fertilization
3.	at the blastocyst stage on the wall of oviduct, 7th / 8th day post fertilization
4.	at the blastocyst stage on the wall of uterus, 7th / 8th day post fertilization

45.

During embryonic development:

1.	the trophoblast cells help in the formation of the placenta and inner cell mass differentiates into the embryo
2.	the trophoblast cells differentiate into the embryo and inner cell mass helps in the formation of the placenta
3.	the trophoblast cells help in the formation of the placenta and both trophoblast cells and inner cell mass differentiate into the embryo
4.	the trophoblast cells help in the formation of the placenta and differentiate into the embryo as well

46.

The level of which of the following hormones is increased several folds in the maternal blood when compared with a non-pregnant stage?

1.	hCG	2.	hPL
3.	Relaxin	4.	Thyroxine

47.

The first movements of the fetus and the appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during:

1.	2nd month of pregnancy
2.	3rd month of pregnancy
3.	5th month of pregnancy
4.	7th month of pregnancy

48.

The signals for parturition originate from:
1. The fully developed fetus
2. The fully developed fetus and the placenta
3. Maternal hypothalamus
4. Maternal pituitary

49.

The type of antibodies present in the colostrum predominantly belong to the class:
1. IgA
2. IgM
3. IgE
4. IgG

50.

The number of eggs released by the mother if she gave birth to identical twins or fraternal twins would respectively be:

1.	1 and 1	2.	1 and 2
3.	2 and 1	4.	2 and 2

51.

Identify the correct statement:

1.	Sertoli cells help in spermiation
2.	The sperms are stored in seminal vesicles in humans
3.	Corpus Albicans secretes large amounts of progesterone
4.	For normal fertility, at least 40% sperms must show vigorous motility

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