Physics-Section-A
1. A body is dropped from a height of
\(100~\text{m}\). At what height the velocity of the body will be equal to one-half of the velocity when it hits the ground?
| 1. |
\(25~\text{m}\) |
2. |
\(55~\text{m}\) |
| 3. |
\(65~\text{m}\) |
4. |
\(75~\text{m}\) |
2. A car moving in a positive
\({x}\text-\)direction with uniform positive acceleration. Which one of the following velocity-time graphs correctly represents the motion of the car?
3. Consider the following figure representing the displacement of an object in one dimension.
Which of the following best represents the graph of acceleration versus time?
4. The figure given below shows the displacement and time, \((x\text -t)\) graph of a particle moving along a straight line:
The correct statement, about the motion of the particle, is:
| 1. |
the particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time \(t_0\) and then stops. |
| 2. |
the particle is accelerated throughout its motion. |
| 3. |
the particle is accelerated continuously for time \(t_0\) then moves with constant velocity. |
| 4. |
the particle is at rest. |
5. The displacement
\(x\) (in
\(\text m\)) of a particle of mass
\(m\) (in
\(\text{kg}\)) moving in one dimension under the action of a force, is related to time
\(t\) (in
\(\text s\)) by;
\(t = (\sqrt x +3 ).\) The displacement of the particle when its velocity is zero will be:
| 1. |
\(4~\text m\) |
2. |
zero |
| 3. |
\(6~\text m\) |
4. |
\(2~\text m\) |
6. A man of mass m climbs a rope of length \(L\) suspended below a balloon of mass \(M\). The balloon is stationary with respect to the ground. If the man begins to climb up the rope at velocity \({\overrightarrow{v}}_{rel}\) (relative to rope), in what direction and with what speed (relative to ground) will the balloon move?
1. \(\overrightarrow{{V}}=\frac{m}{M}{\overrightarrow{v}}_{rel}\)
2. \(\overrightarrow{{V}}={-}\frac{m}{M}{\overrightarrow{v}}_{rel}\)
3. \(\overrightarrow{{V}}=-\frac{m}{\left({{m}+{M}}\right)}{\overrightarrow{v}}_{rel}\)
4. \(\overrightarrow{{V}}=+\frac{m}{\left({{m}+{M}}\right)}{\overrightarrow{v}}_{rel}\)
7. A particle moving along a straight line undergoes a displacement
\((x),\) which is shown in the adjacent figure, as a function of time
\((t).\) The distance travelled by the particle from
\(t=0\) to
\(t=6~\text s\) is:
1.
\(2~\text m\)
2.
\(3~\text m\)
3.
\(4~\text m\)
4.
\(0~\text m\)
8. Train \(A\) and train \(B\) are running on parallel tracks in opposite directions with speeds of \(36~\text{km/h}\) and \(72~\text{km/h}\), respectively. A person is walking in train \(A\) in the direction opposite to its motion with a speed of \(1.8~\text{km/hr}\). Speed (in m/s) of this person as observed from train \(B\) will be close to:
(Take the distance between the tracks as negligible)
1. \(30.5~\text{ms}^{-1}\)
2. \(29.5~\text{ms}^{-1}\)
3. \(31.5~\text{ms}^{-1}\)
4. \(28.5~\text{ms}^{-1}\)
9. A particle moves along a straight line starting from rest at the origin and accelerates uniformly to reach a speed \(v\) in time \(T.\) The distance covered by it in time \(T\) is:
1. \(\dfrac12vT\)
2. \(vT\)
3. \(\dfrac32vT\)
4. \(2vT\)
10. A body sliding on a smooth inclined plane requires \(4~\text{s}\) to reach the bottom starting from rest at the top. How much time does it take to cover one-fourth the distance starting from rest at the top?
1. \(1~\text{s}\)
2. \(2~\text{s}\)
3. \(4~\text{s}\)
4. \(16~\text{s}\)
11. A horizontal bridge is built across a river. A student standing on the bridge throws a small ball vertically upwards with a velocity
\(4\) ms
–1. The ball strikes the water surface after
\(4\) s. The height of bridge above water surface is: (Take
\(g=10~ \text {ms}^{-2}\) )
| 1. |
\(68\) m |
2. |
\(56\) m |
| 3. |
\(60\) m |
4. |
\(64\) m |
12. Two cars \(P\) and \(Q\) start from a point at the same time in a straight line and their positions are represented by; \(x_p(t)= at+bt^2\) and \(x_Q(t) = ft-t^2. \) At what time do the cars have the same velocity?
| 1. |
\(\frac{a-f}{1+b}\) |
2. |
\(\frac{a+f}{2(b-1)}\) |
| 3. |
\(\frac{a+f}{2(b+1)}\) |
4. |
\(\frac{f-a}{2(1+b)}\) |
13. A ball, thrown vertically upward, is observed to move upward with a speed
\(v_1\) at time
\(t_1\) and a speed
\(v_2,\) downward, at time
\(t_2.\)
The average velocity of the ball during the motion is (downward):
| 1. |
\(\large\frac{v_2-v_1}{2}\) |
2. |
\(\large\frac{v_2+v_1}{2}\) |
| 3. |
\({v_2-v_1}\) |
4. |
\({v_2+v_1}\) |
14. Two stones
\(A\) and
\(B\) are projected simultaneously with the same speed: one
\((A)\) vertically up and the other
\((B)\) horizontally from the same point. Stone
\(A\) rises up to a maximum height
\(H\) and falls down. The separation between
\(A\) and
\(B,\) when
\(A\) reaches its maximum height:
| 1. |
is less than \(H\) |
| 2. |
is greater than \(H\) |
| 3. |
is equal to \(H\) |
| 4. |
cannot be related with \(H\) |
15. The given graph depicts the variation of velocity
\((v)\) with displacement
\((x).\) Which of the following graphs accurately represents the corresponding variation of acceleration
\((a)\) with displacement
\((t)\)?
16. A ball, when thrown vertically upward from the ground, just reaches the top of a building in \(4~\text s.\) When dropped from the middle of the building, it will reach the ground in:
1. \(4~\text s\)
2. \(2\sqrt2~\text s\)
3. \(2~\text s\)
4. \(4(\sqrt2-1)~\text s\)
17. The velocity-time graph of a particle, moving along a straight time, is shown in the figure. The curve, when plotted, takes the form of a 'circle'. The magnitude of the average acceleration of the particle is:
| 1. |
\(1\) m/s2 |
| 2. |
\(2\) m/s2 |
| 3. |
less than \(1\) m/s2 |
| 4. |
greater than \(2\) m/s2 |
18. A particle has initial velocity \(\left(2 \hat{i} + 3 \hat{j}\right)\) and acceleration \(\left(0 . 3 \hat{i} + 0 . 2 \hat{j}\right)\). The magnitude of velocity after \(10\) s will be:
1.
\(9 \sqrt{2}~ \text{units}\)
2.
\(5 \sqrt{2} ~\text{ units}\)
3.
\(5~\text{units}\)
4.
\(9~\text{units}\)
19. During uniformly accelerated motion in a straight line, which of the following can be negative or positive?
| 1. |
distance travelled |
2. |
time travelled |
| 3. |
average velocity |
4. |
average speed |
20. Two cars
\(A\) and
\(B,\) each
\(5~\text{m}\) long, are travelling along parallel lanes with speeds of
\(36~\text{km/hr}\) and
\(72~\text{km/hr}.\) The car
\(B\) is just behind the car
\(A,\) but is beginning to overtake. What will be the distance covered by the car
\(B\) by the time it is just ahead of the car
\(A?\)
| 1. |
\(10~\text{m}\) |
2. |
\(15~\text{m}\) |
| 3. |
\(20~\text{m}\) |
4. |
\(25~\text{m}\) |
21. A mass is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a certain initial velocity
\(\mathrm{u}.\) Which one of the following velocity-time
\(\mathrm{(v\text-t)}\) graphs represents the motion of the mass?
22. A person sitting on the ground floor of a building notices through the window, of height \(1.5~\text{m}\), a ball dropped from the roof of the building crosses the window in \(0.1~\text{s}\). What is the velocity of the ball when it is at the topmost point of the window? \(\left(g = 10~\text{m/s}^2\right )\)
| 1. |
\(15.5~\text{m/s}\) |
2. |
\(14.5~\text{m/s}\) |
| 3. |
\(4.5~\text{m/s}\) |
4. |
\(20~\text{m/s}\) |
23. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane starting from rest at time \(t=0.\) Let \(S_n\) be the distance traveled by the block in the interval \(t=n-1\) to \(t=n.\) Then the ratio \(\dfrac{S_n}{S_{n +1}}\) is:
| 1. |
\(\dfrac{2n+1}{2n-1}\) |
2. |
\(\dfrac{2n}{2n-1}\) |
| 3. |
\(\dfrac{2n-1}{2n}\) |
4. |
\(\dfrac{2n-1}{2n+1}\) |
24. The friction of the air causes vertical retardation equal to
\(10\%\) of the acceleration due to gravity. The maximum height will be decreased by:
(Take
\(g=10\) ms
-2)
| 1. |
\(8\%\) |
2. |
\(9\%\) |
| 3. |
\(10\%\) |
4. |
\(11\%\) |
25. The motion of a particle along a straight line is described by the equation \(x = 8+12t-t^3\) where \(x \) is in meter and \(t\) in seconds. The retardation of the particle, when its velocity becomes zero, is:
1. \(24\) ms-2
2. zero
3. \(6\) ms-2
4. \(12\) ms-2
26. The velocity-time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is shown in the adjacent figure. The average velocity is:
| 1. |
\(1~\text{ms}^{-1}\) |
2. |
\(2~\text{ms}^{-1}\) m/s |
| 3. |
less than \(1~\text{ms}^{-1}\) |
4. |
greater than \(2~\text{ms}^{-1}\) |
27. A ball, thrown vertically upward, is observed to move upward with a speed
\(v_1\) at time
\(t_1\) and a speed
\(v_2,\) downward, at time
\(t_2.\)
The acceleration of the ball is (downward):
| 1. |
\(\dfrac{v_2-v_1}{t_2-t_1}\) |
2. |
\(\dfrac{v_2+v_1}{t_2-t_1}\) |
| 3. |
\(\dfrac{v_2-v_1}{t_2+t_1}\) |
4. |
\(\dfrac{v_2+v_1}{t_2+t_1}\) |
28. From the velocity-time
\((v\text-t)\) plot shown in the figure, what is the distance travelled by the particle during the first
\(40~\text s?\)
1. zero
2.
\(100~\text m\)
3.
\(150~\text m\)
4.
\(200~\text m\)
29. A mango falling from a
height \(H\) from a tree is observed from a car moving with a uniform
velocity \(u,\) along a road, that passes underneath. The mango hits the car. Assume the size of the car to be negligible, and the acceleration due to gravity to be
\(g.\)
The relative speed of the mango when it hits the car is:
| 1. |
\(u+\sqrt{2gH}\) |
2. |
\(u-\sqrt{2gH}\) |
| 3. |
\(\sqrt{u^2+{2gH}}\) |
4. |
\(\sqrt{u^2-{2gH}}\) |
30. A particle is moving along a straight line such that its position depends on time as \(x=1-at+bt^{2} \), where \(a=2~\text{m/s}\), \(b=1~\text{m/s}^2\). The distance covered by the particle during the first \(3\) seconds from start of the motion will be:
| 1. |
\(2~\text{m}\) |
2. |
\(5~\text{m}\) |
| 3. |
\(7~\text{m}\) |
4. |
\(4~\text{m}\) |
31. The displacement-time
\((s\text-t)\) graphs of two moving particles
\(A~\text{and}~B\) make angles of
\(30^\circ\) and
\(45^\circ\) with the
\(x\text-\)axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity
\(\left(\dfrac{v_A}{v_B}\right) \) is:
1.
\(1: \sqrt{3}\)
2.
\(\sqrt{3}: 1\)
3.
\(1:1\)
4.
\(1:2\)
32. Depict the shown
\(v\text-x\) graph in the
\(a\text-x\) graph:
33. The line
\(AB\) makes a
\(45^\circ\) angle with the
\(x\)-axis, but it moves along the negative
\(y\)-axis with a speed of
\(1~\text{m/s}.\) The velocity, of the intersection
\((C)\) of
\(AB\) with
\(x\)-axis, is:
| 1. |
\(1~\text{m/s}\) along the positive \(x\)-axis |
| 2. |
\(1~\text{m/s}\) along the negative \(x\)-axis |
| 3. |
\(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt2} ~\text{m/s}\) along the positive \(x\)-axis |
| 4. |
\(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt2}~\text{m/s}\) along the negative \(x\)-axis |
34. The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the \(1\)st, \(2\)nd, \(3\)rd and \(4\)th second is:
1. \(1:1:1:1\)
2. \(1:2:3:4\)
3. \(1:4:9:16\)
4. \(1:3:5:7\)
35. The acceleration-time graph of a particle is shown in the figure. What is the velocity of the particle at
\(t= 8~\text{s}\) if the initial velocity of the particle is
\(3~\text{m/s}\)?
1.
\(4~\text{m/s}\)
2.
\(5~\text{m/s}\)
3.
\(6~\text{m/s}\)
4.
\(7~\text{m/s}\)
Physics-Section-B
36. Given below are two statements:
| Statement I: |
If the displacement of a particle varies quadratically as the time elapsed, the particle moves with a constant acceleration. |
| Statement II: |
The distance travelled by a particle is always greater than or equal to the magnitude of the displacement. |
| 1. |
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. |
| 2. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. |
| 3. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. |
| 4. |
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. |
37. A ball is released from the top of a building \(180~\text{m}\) high. It takes time \(t\) to reach the ground. With what speed should it be projected down so that it reaches the ground in time \(\frac{5t}{6}\)?
1. \(50~\text{ms}^{-1}\)
2. \(61~\text{ms}^{-1}\)
3. \(11~\text{ms}^{-1}\)
4. \(2~\text{ms}^{-1}\)
38. A man \((A)\) has to throw a ball vertically up to a partner \((B)\) who is standing up, above his level by \(15~\text{m}.\) The \((B)\) partner can catch the ball only when it comes downwards with a maximum speed of \(10~\text{m/s}\)
(take acceleration due to gravity as \(10~\text{m/s}^{2}\))
The minimum and maximum speeds of the throw are: (nearly)
1. \(10~\text{m/s}~\text{and}~20~\text{m/s}\)
2. \(10~\text{m/s}~\text{and}~30~\text{m/s}\)
3. \(20~\text{m/s}~\text{and}~20\sqrt{3}~\text{m/s}\)
4. \(10\sqrt{3}~\text{m/s}~\text{and}~20~\text{m/s}\)
39. A particle moves along a straight line with its velocity \((v)\) varying as the square root of its displacement \((x)\text:\) \(v\propto\sqrt x\)
Then its acceleration varies as:
1. \(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt x}\)
2. \(x^{3/2}\)
3. \(x^{-3/2}\)
4. \(x^0\)
40. A particle moves along a straight line so that its velocity \((v)\) is directed towards a fixed point on its path and is proportional to its distance \((x) \) from that point. Its acceleration is proportional to:
1. \(x \)
2. \(\dfrac1x \)
3. \(\sqrt x \)
4. \(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt x} \)
41. A car is going up a slight slope decelerating at \(0.1\) m/s2. It comes to a stop after going for \(5\) s. What was its initial velocity?
1. \(0.02~\text {m/s}\)
2. \(0.25~\text {m/s}\)
3. \(0.5~\text{m/s}\)
4. \(1.0~\text{m/s}\)
42. The position-time
\((x\text-t)\) graph for positive acceleration is:
43. If two trains are moving in opposite directions and they have a relative velocity of
\(100~\text{km/h},\) their individual velocities cannot be:
| 1. |
less than \(50~\text{km/h}\) |
| 2. |
greater than \(50~\text{km/h}\) |
| 3. |
less than \(100~\text{km/h}\) |
| 4. |
greater than \(100~\text{km/h}\) |
44. Buses ply between two towns,
\((A,B)\) separated by
\(6~\text{km:}\) those going from
\(A\) towards
\(B\) go at
\(20~\text{km/h}\) while those going from
\(B\) to
\(A\) go at
\(30~\text{km/h}.\) If a passenger were to make a round trip from
\(A\) to
\(B\) and back, without stopping, his average speed will be:
| 1. |
\(25~\text{km/h}\) |
2. |
\(24~\text{km/h}\) |
| 3. |
\(27~\text{km/h}\) |
4. |
\(28~\text{km/h}\) |
45. A particle moves around a circle with a unique uniform speed in each revolution. After the first revolution and during the \(2\)nd revolution: its speed doubles; and during the \(3\)rd revolution, its speed becomes \(3\) times the initial speed and so on. The time for the \(1\)st revolution is \(12\) sec. The average time per revolution, for the first four revolutions, is:
1. \(4.8\) s
2. \(9.6\) s
3. \(6.25\) s
4. \(6\) s
46. The motion of a particle is given by
\(S=1+4t-2t^2\). The distance travelled by the particle during
\(t=0\) to
\(t=2\) seconds will be:
| 1. |
\(0\) unit |
2. |
\(2\) unit |
| 3. |
\(4\) unit |
4. |
\(3\) unit |
47. Given below are two statements:
| Assertion (A): |
The average speed of a particle that has undergone motion can be zero, but its average acceleration cannot be zero. |
| Reason (R): |
The average speed is the distance travelled per unit time over the entire motion, while the average acceleration is the change in velocity divided by the time. |
| 1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
| 2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
| 3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
| 4. |
(A) is False but (R) is True. |
48. Consider a chessboard, as shown in the figure, where the width of each square is
\(2~\text{cm}.\) Assume that all pieces are kept at the centres of the squares, before and after a move. Also, assume that each single move takes
\(2~\text{s}\) – irrespective of however many squares (distance) are taken.
What is the maximum possible displacement of a rook
\(\Large(♖)\) in a single move?
Note: A rook can move any number of squares along only
\(x\) or only
\(y\) (positive or negative) direction.
| 1. |
\(14~\text{cm}\) |
2. |
\(16~\text{cm}\) |
| 3. |
\(18~\text{cm}\) |
4. |
\(16\sqrt2~\text{cm}\) |
49. Which of the following statements is true about the motion depicted in the diagram?
| 1. |
The acceleration is constant and non-zero. |
| 2. |
The velocity changes suddenly during the motion. |
| 3. |
The velocity is positive throughout. |
| 4. |
All of the above are true. |
50. A particle is projected vertically upwards with a speed \(u\) and moves under the force of gravity. The distance travelled by the particle during its entire motion (until it returns) is \(d_1.\) If the force of gravity were to be switched off, and the particle travelled for the same length of time, then the distance travelled is \(d_2.\) Then,
1. \(d_2 = d_1\)
2. \(d_2 = 2d_1\)
3. \(d_2 = 3d_1\)
4. \(d_2 = 4 d_1\)
Chemistry-Section-A
51. The correct order of electron gain enthalpy is:
1. S > Se > Te > O
2. Te > Se > S > O
3. O > S > Se > Te
4. S > O > Se > Te
52. The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is:
1. Ununoctium
2. Ununennium
3. Unnilennium
4. Unununnium
53.
| Assertion (A): |
Oxygen has less negative electron gain enthalpy than sulphur. |
| Reason (R): |
The electronegativity of oxygen is higher than that of sulphur. |
| 1. |
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
| 2. |
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
| 3. |
(A) is correct, but (R) is not correct. |
| 4. |
(A) is not correct, but (R) is correct. |
54. Which one of the following elements has the highest 3rd ionization potential?
1. Na
2. Mg
3. Al
4. Si
55. Match
Column-I with
Column-II and mark the appropriate choice:
|
Column-I
(Atomic number) |
|
Column-II
(Block) |
| (A) |
62 |
(i) |
d-block |
| (B) |
47 |
(ii) |
p-Block |
| (C) |
56 |
(iii) |
f-block |
| (D) |
53 |
(iv) |
s-block |
Codes:
1. (A) →(iii), (B)→(i), (C) →(iv), (D)→ (ii)
2. (A) →(i), (B)→(ii), (C) →(iii), (D)→ (iv)
3. (A) →(ii), (B)→(iv), (C) →(i), (D)→ (iii)
4. (A) →(iv), (B)→(i), (C) →(ii), (D)→ (iii)
56. Consider the following reaction.
Na2O + H2O → A
Cl2O7 + H2O → B
The product A and B are respectively:
1. A is NaOH; and B is HOCl
2. A is NaH; and B is HOCl
3. A is NaH; and B is HClO2
4. A is NaOH; and B is HClO4
57. Elements in the same group have similar physical and chemical properties due to the same:
1. Electronic configuration
2. Valence electrons
3. Atomic size
4. Atomic mass
58.
| Statement I: |
Elements like He, Ne, and Nitrogen show positive electron gain enthalpies. |
| Statement II: |
The formation of Cl- from Cl and O2- from O- are exothermic processes. |
1.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is incorrect.
2.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is correct.
3.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is incorrect.
4.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is correct.
59. Given below are pair of species. Which pair has the largest difference in sizes?
| 1. |
Na and K |
2. |
K and K+ |
| 3. |
Cl and Cl- |
4. |
Cl and Br |
60. The correct sequence of increasing the basic nature of the following oxides is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
61. The correct arrangement among the following, in order of increasing size, is:
1. N< O< F
2. Na< Mg< K
3. Cr< Cr2+ <Cr3+
4. Cl< Cl- <S2-
62. The correct order of ionisation energy for the four given species is:
1. B < Be < N < C
2. Be > B > C > N
3. B < Be < C < N
4. Be < B < C < N
63. Which ion is isoelectronic with Be²⁺?
1.
2.
3.
4.
64. The correct arrangement of the filling of sub-shells in a ground state atom according to the Aufbau principle is:
1. 3s 3p 3d
2. 3p 4s 3d
3. 3d 4s 4p
4. 4p 4d 4f
65. Identify the pair of elements with similar electronegativity from the options given below:
| 1. |
B and C |
2. |
B and Al |
| 3. |
B and Si |
4. |
Al and C |
66. Increasing order of ionisation energy of the elements Se, Cl, and S is:
1. Se > S > Cl
2. Se < S < Cl
3. Se < S > Cl
4. None of the above
67. The formation of the oxide ion O2– (g), from the oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below,
Thus, the process of formation of O2– in the gas phase is unfavorable even though O2– is isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that:
| 1. |
Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration. |
| 2. |
O– ion has a comparatively smaller size than the oxygen atom. |
| 3. |
Oxygen is more electronegative. |
| 4. |
Addition of electrons in oxygen results in a large size of the ion. |
68. The correct order of first ionization enthalpy for the given four element is:
| 1. |
C < N < F < O |
2. |
C < N < O < F |
| 3. |
C < O < N < F |
4. |
C < F < N < O |
69. Element 58Ce belongs to:
1. s-block elements
2. p-block elements
3. d-block elements
4. f-block elements
70. The most acidic oxide amongst the following is
| 1. |
NO |
2. |
\(N_2O\) |
| 3. |
\(NO_2\) |
4. |
\(N_2O_5\) |
71. Which among the following species has the highest ionization potential?
1. \(F^-\)
2. \(Cl^-\)
3. \(O^-\)
4. \(S^-\)
72. The set that contains atomic numbers of only transition elements is:
1. 21, 32, 53, 64
2. 9, 17, 34, 38
3. 21, 25, 42, 72
4. 37, 42, 50, 64
73. The correct sequence of increasing order of metallic character, from the following, is:
1. Si, P, S
2. As, P, N
3. Al, Ge, Sb
4. Br, Se, As
74. Which of the following pair is correctly matched?
1. Basic oxides - \(\mathrm{In_2O_3 , K_2O , SnO_2}\)
2. Neutral oxides - \(\mathrm{CO, NO_2, N_2O}\)
3. Acidic oxides - \(\mathrm{Mn_2O_7, SO_2, TeO_3}\)
4. Amphoteric oxides -\(\mathrm{BeO , Ga_2O_3 , GeO }\)
75. Anions are larger in radius than their parent atoms because:
| 1. |
An anion has a fewer number of electrons than its parent atom |
| 2. |
An anion has the same number of electrons as its parent atom. |
| 3. |
An anion has a higher effective nuclear charge. |
| 4. |
An anion has more electrons than its parent atom |
76. Identify the INCORRECT match.
| Name |
IUPAC Official Name |
| a. Unnilunium |
(i) Mendelevium |
| b. Unniltrium |
(ii) Lawrecium |
| c. Unnilhexium |
(iii) Seaborgium |
| d. Unununnium |
(iv) Darmstadtium |
| 1. |
(b)- (ii) |
2. |
(c)- (iii) |
| 3. |
(d) -(iv) |
4. |
(a)- (i) |
77. Match the electronic configurations in List-I with their corresponding ionization energies in List-II.
|
List-I
(Electronic configuration of
elements) |
|
List-II
\(\mathbf {({(I.E)}_1 \text { in } \mathbf {kJ} \mathbf{~mol}^{-1})}\) |
| a. |
1s22s2 |
(i) |
801 |
| b. |
1s22s22p4 |
(ii) |
899 |
| c. |
1s22s22p3 |
(iii) |
1314 |
| d. |
1s22s22p1 |
(iv) |
1402 |
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. (a) (ii), (b) (iii), (c) (iv), (d) (i)
2. (a) (i), (b) (iv), (c) (iii), (d) (ii)
3. (a) (i), (b) (iii), (c) (iv), (d) (ii)
4. (a) (iv), (b) (i), (c) (ii), (d) (iii)
78. Predict the group and period in which the element with atomic number 79 will be found:
1. 2nd Group, 7th Period
2. 11th Group, 6th Period
3. 13th Group, 6th Period
4. 12th Group, 6th Period
79. Match Column I with Column II.
|
Column-I |
|
Column-II |
| (a) |
Copper |
(i) |
Non-metal |
| (b) |
Fluorine |
(ii) |
Transition metal |
| (c) |
Silicon |
(iii) |
Lanthanoid |
| (d) |
Cerium |
(iv) |
Metalloid |
|
(a) |
(b) |
(c) |
(d) |
| 1. |
(ii) |
(iv) |
(i) |
(iii) |
| 2. |
(ii) |
(i) |
(iv) |
(iii) |
| 3. |
(iv) |
(iii) |
(i) |
(ii) |
| 4. |
(i) |
(ii) |
(iii) |
(iv) |
80. In which of the following options, the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of the property indicated against it?
| 1. |
B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy) |
| 2. |
I < Br < F < Cl (increasing negative electron gain enthalpy) |
| 3. |
Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius) |
| 4. |
Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ <F– (increasing ionic size) |
81. Match the periodic properties given in
List I with the corresponding elements given in
List II:
|
List I |
|
List II (High value observed for) |
| A. |
Ionisation potential |
I. |
Chlorine |
| B. |
Electropositivity |
II. |
Caesium |
| C. |
Electron affinity |
III. |
Helium |
| D. |
Oxidation state |
IV. |
Fluorine |
|
|
V. |
Osmium |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A‐IV, B‐III, C‐II, D‐I
2. A‐III, B‐II, C‐I, D‐V
3. A‐I, B‐II, C‐III, D‐IV
4. A‐II, B‐I, C‐IV, D‐V
82. The ion having the highest value of ionic radius among the following is:
1. Li+
2. B3+
3. O2-
4. F-
83. Which of the following has the highest negative electron gain enthalpy?
84. Which one of the following ions has highest hydration energy?
| 1. |
\(Mg^{2+} \) |
2. |
\(Li^+ \) |
| 3. |
\(Be^{2+} \) |
4. |
\(Na^+ \) |
85. Which species among the following has the largest ionic radius?
1. \(S^{2-}\)
2. \(Cl^-\)
3. \(K^+ \)
4. \(Ca^{2+}\)
Chemistry-Section-B
86. Which list presents the elements in the order of increasing first ionization energy?
1. Ca < Si < P < N
2. N < P < Si < Ca
3. Ca < N < P < Si
4. N < Si < P < Ca
87. Given below are two statements:
| Assertion (A): |
Among halogens, chlorine has the highest negative electron gain enthalpy value. |
| Reason (R): |
The ionic radius of Cl- is 184 pm. |
| 1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
| 2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
| 3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
| 4. |
(A) is False but (R) is True. |
88. The element 'Re' belongs to which group and period, respectively?
1. 7 and 6
2. 7 and 7
3. 6 and 7
4. 6 and 6
89. The correct order of 3rd ionisation potential of Na , Mg, Al and Si will be:
1. Si > Al > Mg > Na
2. Mg > Si > Al > Na
3. Mg > Na > Si > Al
4. Na > Mg > Si > Al
90. Beryllium has higher ionization enthalpy than boron. This can be explained as:
| 1. |
Beryllium has a higher size than boron, hence its ionization enthalpy is higher. |
| 2. |
Penetration of 2p-electrons to the nucleus is more than the 2s electrons. |
| 3. |
It is easier to remove electrons from 2p-orbital as compared to 2s-orbital due to more penetration of s electron. |
| 4. |
Ionization energy increases in a period. |
91. Consider the following compounds:
BeO, BaO, Be(OH)2, Sr(OH)2
The amphoteric compound(s) are:
| 1. |
BeO, BaO |
2. |
BaO, Be(OH)2 |
| 3. |
Be(OH)2, BeO |
4. |
Sr(OH)2, Be(OH)2 |
92. Select the correct order of magnitudes of the first electron gain enthalpy from the options provided:
1. Cl < F
2. O < S
3. Te < O
4. S < Se
93. Among , the most acidic oxide is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
94. According to the periodic law of elements, the variation in properties of elements is related to their:
1. Atomic masses
2. Nuclear mass
3. Atomic numbers
4. Nuclear neutron-proton number ratio
95. The incorrect electronic configuration among the following is/are :
A. \(\mathrm{K}=[\mathrm{Ar}] 4 s^1\)
B. \(\mathrm{Pd}=[\mathrm{Kr}] 4d^8, 5 s^2\)
C. \(\mathrm{Cr}=[\mathrm{Ar}] 3 d^4, 4 s^1\)
D. \(\mathrm{Cu}=[\mathrm{Ar}] 3 d^{10}, 4 s^1 \)
1. C and D only
2. B and C only
3. A and D only
4. B, C, and D only
96. Which one of the following represents all isoelectronic species?
1. \(\mathrm{Na^+ , Cl^-, O^- , NO^+}\)
2. \(\mathrm{N_2O, N_2O_4 , NO^+, NO}\)
3. \(\mathrm{Na^+ , Mg^{2+} , O^- , F^-}\)
4. \(\mathrm{Ca^{2+} , Ar, K^+, Cl^-}\)
97. In which of the following arrangements the order is not according to the property indicated against it?
| 1. |
Li < Na < K < Rb : Increasing metallic radius |
| 2. |
I < Br < F < Cl: Increasing electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign) |
| 3. |
B < C < N < O: Increasing first ionisation enthalpy |
| 4. |
Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F- : Increasing ionic size |
98. Choose the incorrect statement among the following regarding the variation of atomic radii in the periodic table:
| 1. |
In a group, there is a continuous increase in size with an increase in atomic number. |
| 2. |
In the 4f-series, there is a continuous decrease in size with an increase in atomic number. |
| 3. |
The size of inert gases is larger than that of halogens. |
| 4. |
In the 3rd period, the size of atoms increases with an increase in atomic number. |
99. Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
| 1. |
The valence electron and valency are the same for group 1. |
| 2. |
p-block elements exhibit properties of metals, nonmetals, and metalloids. |
| 3. |
Noble gases, excluding He, typically possess 8 valence electrons. |
| 4. |
Ne is considered the smallest atom in the periodic table |
100. Give are ions in
Column-I and ionic radii in
Column-II:
|
Column-I (Ion) |
|
Column-II (Ionic Size) |
| (p) |
\(\mathrm{Mg}^{2+}\) |
(I) |
1.19 Å |
| (Q) |
\(\mathrm{O}^{2-}\) |
(II) |
0.72 Å |
| (R) |
\(\mathrm{Na}^{+}\) |
(III) |
1.16 Å |
| (S) |
\(\mathrm{F}^{-}\) |
(IV) |
1.26 Å |
Identify the option capturing the correct match of information given in Column I and Column II above:
|
P |
Q |
R |
S |
| 1. |
III |
I |
II |
IV |
| 2. |
II |
IV |
I |
III |
| 3. |
II |
IV |
III |
I |
| 4. |
IV |
II |
III |
I |
Biology-I-Section-A
101. Which bacterial group is known for nitrogen fixation as well as carrying out oxygenic photosynthesis?
1. Cyanobacteria
2. Methanogens
3. Chemoheterotrophic bacteria
4. Mycoplasma
102. Which, among the following, are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?
| 1. |
Pseudomonas |
2. |
Mycoplasma |
| 3. |
Nostoc |
4. |
Bacillus |
103. Consider the given two statements:
| Assertion(A): |
Diatoms have left behind large amount of cell wall deposits in their habitat. |
| Reason(R): |
Diatoms are the chief ‘producers’ in the oceans. |
| 1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A) |
| 2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not explain (A) |
| 3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False |
| 4. |
(A) is False but (R) is True |
104. A spherical bacterium is called as:
1. Coccus
2. Bacillus
3. Vibrios
4. Spirochaete
105. Infectious proteins are present in:
| 1. |
geminiviruses |
2. |
prions |
| 3. |
viroids |
4. |
satellite viruses |
106. Match the Column-I with Column-II
|
|
Column-I
|
|
Column-II
|
|
(a)
|
Saprophyte
|
(i)
|
Symbiotic association of fungi with plant roots
|
|
(b)
|
Parasite
|
(ii)
|
Decomposition of dead organic materials
|
|
(c)
|
Lichens
|
(iii)
|
Living on living plants or animals
|
|
(d)
|
Mycorrhiza
|
(iv)
|
Symbiotic association of algae and fungi
|
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| Options: |
(a) |
(b) |
(c) |
(d) |
| 1. |
(ii) |
(iii) |
(iv) |
(i) |
| 2. |
(i) |
(ii) |
(iii) |
(iv) |
| 3. |
(iii) |
(ii) |
(i) |
(iv) |
| 4. |
(ii) |
(i) |
(iii) |
(iv) |
107. All the following statements regarding diatoms are true except:
| 1. |
The two overlapping shells of cell wall fit together as in a soap box. |
| 2. |
They are the chief ‘producers’ in the oceans. |
| 3. |
Their cell walls are embedded with silica. |
| 4. |
Diatoms behave like heterotrophs when deprived of sunlight. |
108. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:
|
Column I
[Infectious agent] |
|
Column II
[Chemical nature] |
| A. |
Virus |
P. |
Abnormally folded proteins |
| B. |
Viroid |
Q. |
Nucleocapsid |
| C. |
Prion |
R. |
Low molecular weight free RNA |
Codes:
|
A |
B |
C |
| 1. |
P |
Q |
R |
| 2. |
Q |
R |
P |
| 3. |
Q |
P |
R |
| 4. |
R |
Q |
P |
109. The organism shown in the given figure is a/an:
| 1. |
Archaebacterium |
2. |
Chrysophyte |
| 3. |
Dinoflagellate |
4. |
Blue green laga |
110. The correct chronological steps [earliest to last] in the sexual cycle of fungi are:
| 1. |
Plasmogamy – Karyogamy – Mitosis in zygote resulting in diploid spores |
| 2. |
Plasmogamy – Karyogamy – Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores |
| 3. |
Karyogamy – Plasmogamy – Mitosis in zygote resulting in diploid spores |
| 4. |
Karyogamy – Plasmogamy – Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores |
111. Consider the given two statements:
| Statement I: |
In the five kingdom classification of Whittaker, there is no mention of lichens, viruses, viroids and prions. |
| Statement II: |
Lichens, viruses, viroids and prions are all ‘acellular’ organisms. |
1.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is correct
2.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is correct
3.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is incorrect
4.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is incorrect
112. Mycoplasma are organisms that:
| I. |
completely lack a cell wall. |
| II. |
are the smallest living cells known. |
| III. |
can survive without oxygen. |
| IV. |
include forms which are pathogenic in animals and plants. |
1. Only
I,
II and
III are correct
2. Only
I,
III and
IV are correct
3. Only
II,
III and
IV are correct
4.
I,
II,
III and
IV are correct
113. An analogous variant of the agent that causes BSE in cattle causes:
1. Potato spindle tuber disease
2. Cr–Jacob disease (CJD) in humans
3. Mosaic formation in plants
4. Leaf rolling and curling in plants
114. Cyanobacteria:
| I: |
are eubacteria |
| II: |
have chlorophyll a similar to green plants |
| III: |
can fix atmospheric nitrogen |
1. Only III is correct
2. Only I and II are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct
115. Study the Assertion statement followed by the Reason statement given below:
| Assertion (A): |
The cyanobacteria that are also referred to as blue green algae are not ‘algae’ any more. |
| Reason (R): |
The cyanobacteria are photosynthetic autotrophs. |
| 1. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
| 2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
| 3. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
| 4. |
(A) is False but (R) is True. |
116. Mycorrhiza is:
| 1. |
a fungus that lives on dead or decaying organic matter. |
| 2. |
a fungus that parasitizes on an animal body. |
| 3. |
is a symbiotic association between a fungus and a plant. |
| 4. |
is a symbiotic association between a fungus and a cyanobacterium |
117. Sleeping sickness in humans is caused by a/an:
1. Amoeboid protozoan
2. Flagellated protozoan
3. Ciliated protozoan
4. Sporozoan
118. How many of the given statements are true?
| I: |
No virus contains both RNA and DNA. |
| II: |
A virus is a nucleoprotein and the protein is infectious. |
| III: |
Bacterial viruses or bacteriophages (viruses that infect the bacteria) are usually double stranded DNA viruses. |
| IV: |
Viroids are smaller than viruses. |
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
119. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play a great role in:
| 1. |
forming blooms in polluted water bodies |
| 2. |
recycling nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, iron and sulphur |
| 3. |
making curd from milk |
| 4. |
fixing nitrogen in legume roots |
120. The asexual spores in Ascomycetes:
| I: |
are called conidia. |
| II: |
are produced endogenously |
| 1. |
Only I is correct |
2. |
Only II is correct |
| 3. |
Both I and II are correct |
4. |
Both I and II are incorrect |
121. Bacteria reproduce mainly by:
1. fission
2. producing spores
3. a primitive type of DNA transfer
4. sexual method
122. Which of the following statements is correct?
| 1. |
Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes. |
| 2. |
Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells. |
| 3. |
The fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy. |
| 4. |
Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy. |
123. Which of the following fungus does not belong to the Class Ascomycetes?
| 1. |
Rhizopus |
2. |
Aspergillus |
| 3. |
Neurospora |
4. |
Claviceps |
124. How is a prion different from viroids, viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites?
1. It is non-infectious
2. It is obligate intracellular parasite
3. It is devoid of nucleic acids
4. It is a low molecular weight RNA molecule
125. Citrus canker is caused by a:
| 1. |
Virus |
2. |
Viroid |
| 3. |
Prion |
4. |
Bacterium |
126. The phrase
‘Contagium vivum fluidum’ is associated with:
| 1. |
M.W. Beijerinck |
2. |
W.M. Stanley |
| 3. |
Louis Pasteur |
4. |
Dmitri Ivanowsky |
127. Select the wrong statement:
| 1. |
The viroids were discovered by D.J lvanovsky. |
| 2. |
W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could be crystallized. |
| 3. |
The term 'contagium vivum fluidum' was coined by MW Beijerinck. |
| 4. |
Mosaic disease in tobacco and AIDS in human beings are caused by viruses. |
128. Identify the incorrect statement regarding members of phycomycetes:
| 1. |
They are found in aquatic habitats and on decaying wood in moist and damp places or as obligate parasites on plants. |
| 2. |
The mycelium is septate and coenocytic. |
| 3. |
Asexual reproduction takes place by zoospores (motile) or by aplanospores (non-motile). |
| 4. |
A zygospore is formed by fusion of two gametes. |
129. All the following will be true for heterotrophic bacteria except:
| 1. |
They are most abundant bacteria in nature. |
| 2. |
The majority are important decomposers. |
| 3. |
None of them is capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen. |
| 4. |
Some are pathogens causing damage to human beings, crops, farm animals and pets. |
130. How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs?
| Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Sacharomyces, Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Wolfia |
1. Five
2. Six
3. Three
4. Four
131. Select the wrong statement:
| 1. |
The walls of diatoms are easily destructible |
| 2. |
Diatomaceous earth is formed by the cell walls of diatoms |
| 3. |
Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans |
| 4. |
Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water |
132. That viruses could be crystallised and crystals consist largely of proteins was shown by:
1. M. W. Beijerinck
2. W. M. Stanley
3. Dmitri Ivanovsky
4. Louis Pasteur
133. Consider the given two statements:
| I: |
Mycoplasma are naturally resistant to antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis |
| II: |
They are the smallest bacteria discovered yet |
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. Both I and II are incorrect
134. Consider the given two statements:
| Statement I: |
The sexual cycle in fungi chronologically involves karyogamy, followed by meiosis in zygote and lastly plasmogamy. |
| Statement II: |
In fungi, other than ascomycetes and basidiomycetes, a condition called as dikaryon and a phase called as dikaryophase is seen. |
1.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is correct
2.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is correct
3.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is incorrect
4.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is incorrect
135. Which of the following is correct about viroids?
1. They have free RNA without protein coat.
2. They have DNA with protein coat.
3. They have free DNA without protein coat.
4. They have RNA with protein coat.
Biology-I-Section-B
136. What characters will be similar in members of Kingdom Fungi and Kingdom Animalia as per Whittaker’s Five Kingdom Classification?
a. Cell type
b. Cell wall
c. Body organisation
| 1. |
Only a |
2. |
Only b and c |
| 3. |
Only a and c |
4. |
Only c |
137. The fungal class ascomycetes does not include:
1. Morels and truffles
2. Neurospora and Claviceps
3. Aspergillus, Saccharomyces
4. Puff balls and smuts
138. Small single-stranded, circular RNAs not surrounded by a protein coating, that are infectious pathogens, are:
| 1. |
Virus |
2. |
Virion |
| 3. |
Viroid |
4. |
Prion |
139. Slime molds:
| 1. |
form plasmodium that differentiates and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips during unfavourable conditions. |
| 2. |
form plasmodium that differentiates and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips during favourable conditions. |
| 3. |
form plasmodium under favourable conditions and the plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips during unfavourable conditions. |
| 4. |
form plasmodium under unfavourable conditions and the plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips during favourable conditions. |
140. Viruses:
1. contain both DNA and RNA as genetic material
2. are facultative parasites
3. cannot be crystallized
4. are nucleoproteins
141. Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?
| 1. |
They are eukaryotic |
| 2. |
All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall |
| 3. |
They are heterotrophic |
| 4. |
They are both unicellular as well as multicellular |
142. Consider the two statements:
| Statement I: |
Viruses are obligate endoparasites. |
| Statement II: |
Once they infect a cell they take over the machinery of the host cell to replicate themselves, killing the host. |
1.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is correct
2.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is incorrect
3.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is correct
4.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is incorrect
143. Match each item in Column I [Protist] with one in Column II [Characteristic] and select the correct option:
|
Protist |
|
Characteristic |
| A. |
Chrysophytes |
P. |
Plasmodium |
| B. |
Dinoflagellates |
Q. |
Chief producers in the ocean |
| C. |
Euglenoids |
R. |
Stiff cellulose plates in cell wall on outer surface |
| D. |
Slime moulds |
S. |
Two flagella, one long and one short |
Codes:
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
| 1. |
R |
Q |
S |
P |
| 2. |
Q |
S |
P |
R |
| 3. |
Q |
R |
S |
P |
| 4. |
R |
S |
Q |
P |
144. Two flagella are seen in:
| I. |
most dinoflagellates |
| II. |
euglenoids |
1. Only
I
2. Only
II
3. Both
I and
II
4. Neither
I nor
II
145. You discover a new fungus. On careful examination you find that the mycelium is septate and branched, they reproduce asexually by conidia and you cannot identify any sexual stage in its life cycle. To which fungal class would you place this fungus?
| 1. |
Phycomycetes |
2. |
Ascomycetes |
| 3. |
Basidiomycetes |
4. |
Deuteromycetes |
146. In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in:
| 1. |
Algae |
2. |
Plantae |
| 3. |
Monera |
4. |
Protista |
147. Which of the following does not relate to heterotrophic bacteria?
| 1. |
They are important decomposers. |
| 2. |
They are helpful in making curd from milk, production of antibiotics and fixing nitrogen in legume roots. |
| 3. |
Some are pathogens causing damage to human beings, crops, farm animals and pets. |
| 4. |
Almost all help in recycling nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, iron and sulphur. |
148. The Mycoplasma:
| I: |
are organisms that completely lack a cell wall. |
| II: |
are the smallest living cells known and can survive without oxygen. |
1. Only
I is correct
2. Only
II is correct
3. Both
I and
II are correct
4. Both
I and
II are incorrect
149. Bladderwort and Venus fly trap are:
| I: |
examples of insectivorous plants. |
| II: |
partially heterotrophic. |
1. Only
I is correct
2. Only
II is correct
3. Both
I and
II are correct
4. Both
I and
II are incorrect
150. Identify the incorrect statement regarding cyanobacteria:
| 1. |
They have chlorophyll a (similar to green plants) |
| 2. |
They are unicellular and never colonial or filamentous |
| 3. |
They often form blooms in polluted water bodies |
| 4. |
Some of them can fix atmospheric nitrogen |
Biology-II-Section-A
151. Consider the following statements:
| I: |
Acetylcholine is released at the electrical synapse. |
| II: |
Electrical synapses are faster. |
| III: |
It is more difficult to regulate an electrical synapse with respect to a chemical synapse. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III
152. The figure shows an axon terminal and synapse. Select the option giving correct identifications of labels A-D.
1. A-Action potential C-Neurotransmitter
2. B-Neurotransmitter D-Receptor capsules
3. C-Receptor D-Synaptic vesicles
4. A-Axon terminal B-Serotonin complex
153. Myelination of axons of the central nervous system is brought about by:
| 1. |
microglia |
2. |
asrocytes |
| 3. |
oligodendrocytes |
4. |
Schwann cells |
154. Which of the following part of human brain is also called emotional brain?
1. Corpus callosum
2. Limbic system
3. Epithalamus
4. Broca's area
155. The axoplasm inside the axon contains:
| 1. |
low concentration of K+ |
| 2. |
high concentration of negatively charged proteins |
| 3. |
high concentration of Na+ |
| 4. |
equal concentrations of Na+ and K+ |
156. Which structure enables the communication between the left and right cerebral hemispheres in the human brain?
1. Foramen of Monroe
2. Cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius
3. Corpus callosum
4. Cerebellar peduncles
157. Nissl’s granules are seen in:
I: Cell body of the neuron
II: Dendrites
| 1. |
Only I |
2. |
Only II |
| 3. |
Both I and II |
4. |
Neither I nor II |
158. Unmyelinated nerve fibre:
| I: |
is enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin sheath around the axon |
| II: |
is commonly found in autonomous and the somatic neural systems |
| 1. |
Only I |
2. |
Only II |
| 3. |
Both I and II |
4. |
Neither I nor II |
159. Which part of the human brain:
| I: |
has hunger, satiety, and sleep centers. |
| II: |
affects activities of the endocrine system. |
| III: |
plays a role in emotional responses such as rage, pain, and pleasure. |
| 1. |
medulla |
2. |
pons |
| 3. |
midbrain |
4. |
hypothalamus |
160. Match List-I with List-II
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| (a) |
Multipolar neuron |
(i) |
Somatic neural system |
| (b) |
Bipolar neuron |
(ii) |
Cerebral cortex |
| (c) |
Myelinated nerve fibre |
(iii) |
Retina of Eye |
| (d) |
Unmyelinated nerve fibre |
(iv) |
Spinal nerves |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
|
(a) |
(b) |
(c) |
(d) |
| 1. |
(iii) |
(i) |
(iv) |
(ii) |
| 2. |
(ii) |
(iv) |
(iii) |
(i) |
| 3. |
(ii) |
(iii) |
(i) |
(iv) |
| 4. |
(ii) |
(iii) |
(iv) |
(i) |
161. The PNS is divided into two divisions where:
| I: |
The somatic neural system relays impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles |
| II: |
The autonomic neural system transmits impulses from the CNS to the involuntary organs and smooth muscles of the body |
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
162. Repolarization after depolarisation is the result of:
1. Sodium ions flowing out of the cell.
2. Sodium ions flowing into the cell.
3. Potassium ions flowing into the cell.
4. Potassium ions flowing out of the cell.
163. The two cerebral hemispheres in the human brain are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called:
| 1. |
corpus striatum |
2. |
corpus callosum |
| 3. |
corpus luteum |
4. |
corpus unigemina |
164. Based on the number of axon and dendrites, the neurons are classified as:
I: Multipolar found in the retina of the eye
II: Bipolar found in the cerebral cortex
III: Unipolar found usually in the embryonic stage
IV: Pseudounipolar found in the dorsal root ganglion of the spinal nerve
1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only III and IV are correct
3. I, II, III and IV are correct
4. I, II, III and IV are incorrect
165. During the transmission of nerve impulses through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
| 1. |
First negative, then positive, and again back to negative |
| 2. |
First positive, then negative, and continue to be negative |
| 3. |
First negative, then positive, and then continues to be positive |
| 4. |
First positive, then negative, and again back to positive |
166. Consider the two statements:
| Assertion (A): |
The cerebral cortex is referred to as the grey matter. |
| Reason (R): |
Myelin sheaths around the axons give the cerebral cortex a grey appearance. |
| 1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
| 2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
| 3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
| 4. |
(A) is False but (R) is True. |
167. Identify the correct statement regarding the sections of the spinal cord shown in the given diagram:
| I: |
A and D are part of the grey mater |
| II: |
B is motor and C is sensory |
| 1. |
Only I |
2. |
Only II |
| 3. |
Both I and II |
4. |
Neither I nor II |
168. The medulla oblongata contains centres for control of all the following except:
1. respiration
2. cardiovascular reflexes
3. gastric secretions
4. thermoregulation
169. Brain stem of the human brain consists of:
1. Mid-brain, Pons and Medulla Oblongata
2. Forebrain, Cerebellum and Pons
3. Thalamus, Hypothalamus and Corpora quadrigemina
4. Amygdala, Hippocampus and Corpus Callosum
170. The brain stem includes all the following except:
| 1. |
Medulla oblongata |
2. |
Pons |
| 3. |
Mid brain |
4. |
Cerebellum |
171. Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses:
| 1. |
Impulse Transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse. |
| 2. |
The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical synapse. |
| 3. |
Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the electrical synapse. |
| 4. |
Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters. |
172. A major coordinating center for sensory and motor signaling in the human brain is shown in the given sagittal section by the letter:
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
173. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on:
1. Pre-synaptic membrane
2. Tips of axons
3. Post-synaptic membrane
4. Membrane of synaptic vesicles
174. Consider the given two statements:
| Assertion (A): |
Neurons are excitable cells. |
| Reason (R): |
The membrane of neurons is polarised. |
| 1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A). |
| 2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A). |
| 3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
| 4. |
Both (A) and (R) are False. |
175. Consider the two statements:
| Statement I: |
Dendrites transmit impulses towards the cell body of the neuron. |
| Statement II: |
The axons transmit nerve impulses away from the cell body to a synapse or to a neuro-muscular junction. |
1.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is incorrect
2.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is incorrect
3.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is correct
4.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is correct
176. Association areas in the cerebral cortex:
| I: |
are neither clearly sensory nor motor in function. |
| II: |
are for complex functions like inter-sensory associations, memory and communication. |
1. Only
I is correct
2. Only
II is correct
3. Both
I and
II are correct
4. Both
I and
II are incorrect
177. Visceral nervous system:
| I: |
is the part of the peripheral nervous system |
| II: |
involves impulses travelling from the central nervous system to the viscera and from the viscera to the central nervous system. |
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
178. All the following are related to the limbic system in the human brain except:
| 1. |
Amygdala |
2. |
Hippocampus |
| 3. |
Olfactory bulb |
4. |
Corpus callosum
|
179. Hypothalamus:
| 1. |
is a basal part of the telencephalon, forebrain. |
| 2. |
contains several groups of neurosecretory cells called nuclei which produce hormones |
| 3. |
is connected to the neurohypophysis by a portal circulation |
| 4. |
is the location of the respiratory rhythm center |
180. In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane is
| 1. |
Nearly impermeable to potassium ions (K+) |
| 2. |
Impermeable to positively charged proteins present in the axoplasm |
| 3. |
Comparatively more permeable to K+ |
| 4. |
Completely permeable to sodium ions |
181. Each time the sodium-potassium pump functions, it actively transports:
| 1. |
three sodium ions to the outside and two potassium ions to the inside of a cell. |
| 2. |
two sodium ions to the outside and three potassium ions to the inside of a cell. |
| 3. |
three sodium ions to the outside and two hydrogen ions to the inside of a cell. |
| 4. |
three potassium ions to the outside and two hydrogen ions to the inside of a cell. |
182. The peripheral nervous system in the human body does not include:
| 1. |
cranial nerve |
2. |
ganglion |
| 3. |
spinal cord |
4. |
spinal nerve |
183. The autonomic nervous system innervates:
I: cardiac muscle
II: glands
III: skeletal muscle
IV: smooth muscle
1. Only I, II and III
2. Only I, II and IV
3. Only II, III and IV
4. I, II, III and IV
184. Which cranial meninge is in contact with the brain tissue?
| 1. |
Dura mater |
2. |
Arachnoid mater |
| 3. |
Pia mater |
4. |
Grey mater |
185. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt:
1. short-term memory
2. co-ordination during locomotion
3. executive functions, such as decision making
4. regulation of body temperature
Biology-II-Section-B
186. Select the correct statement regarding synapses:
| 1. |
Impulse Transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse. |
| 2. |
The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical synapse. |
| 3. |
Electrical synapses are easier to regulate than the chemical synapses. |
| 4. |
Chemical synapses do not use neurotransmitters |
187. The nerve fibres of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) are of two types:
| I: |
Afferent nerve fibres transmit impulses from tissues/organs to the central nervous system (CNS) |
| II: |
Efferent fibres transmit regulatory impulses from the CNS to the concerned peripheral tissues/organs |
| 1. |
Only I is correct |
2. |
Only II is correct |
| 3. |
Both I and II are correct |
4. |
Both I and II are incorrect |
188. Each time the sodium-potassium pump works, it pumps:
1. the anions as well with sodium to the outside
2. the anions as well with potassium to the inside
3. 3 sodium ions outwards
4. 3 potassium ions inwards
189. The hypothalamus in the human brain does not play a direct role in:
| 1. |
Thermoregulation |
2. |
Osmoregulation |
| 3. |
Endocrine functions |
4. |
Gastric secretions |
190. A person involved in a road traffic accident sustains damage to the occipital lobe. He is likely to have trouble with:
| 1. |
Hearing |
2. |
Taste |
| 3. |
Touch |
4. |
Vision |
191. The cranial meninge which is in contact with the brain tissue is called:
1. dura mater
2. arachanoid mater
3. pia mater
4. gray mater
192. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:
|
Column I |
|
Column II |
| A. |
Multipolar neuron |
P. |
Embryonic stage |
| B. |
Bipolar neuron |
Q. |
Retina |
| C. |
Unipolar neuron |
R. |
Cerebral cortex |
Code:
|
A |
B |
C |
| 1. |
P |
Q |
R |
| 2. |
Q |
R |
P |
| 3. |
R |
Q |
P |
| 4. |
R |
P |
Q |
193. Which part of the human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature?
1. Medulla oblongata
2. Cerebellum
3. Cerebrum
4. Hypothalamus
194. What type of neuron is found in the human retina and olfactory membrane?
1. Unipolar
2. Bipolar
3. Multipolar
4. Pseudo-unipolar
195. How many of the given statements are correct?
| I: |
The left and right cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called corpus spongiosum. |
| II: |
Association areas are neither clearly sensory nor motor in function. |
| III: |
Thalamus is a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling. |
| IV: |
The hindbrain comprises pons, cerebellum and medulla. |
| V: |
Three major regions make up the brain stem: mid brain, pons and medulla oblongata. |
196. Medulla oblongata:
| I: |
is a part of the brain stem |
| II: |
is a part of the hind brain |
| III: |
is a part of the limbic system |
| 1. |
Only I and II |
2. |
Only I and III |
| 3. |
Only II and III |
4. |
I, II and III |
197. The ionic gradients across the resting axonal membrane are maintained by:
| 1. |
the passive transport of sodium and potassium ions through membrane channels. |
| 2. |
the passive transport of sodium and chloride ions through membrane channels. |
| 3. |
the active transport of ions by the sodium-potassium pump which transports 3 Na+ outwards for 2 K+ into the cell. |
| 4. |
the active transport of ions by the sodium-chloride pump which transports 3 Na+ outwards for 2 Cl- into the cell. |
198. Consider the given two statements:
| Statement I: |
The left and right cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called corpus callosum. |
| Statement II: |
A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passess through the midbrain. |
1.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is correct
2.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is incorrect
3.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is correct
4.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is incorrect
199. At a chemical synapse:
| I: |
neurotransmitters are involved in the transmission of impulses. |
| II: |
the axon terminals contain vesicles filled with the neurotransmitters. |
| III: |
the released neurotransmitters bind to their specific receptors, present on the post-synaptic membrane. |
1. Only
I and
II are correct
2. Only
I and
III are correct
3. Only
II and
III are correct
4.
I,
II and
III are correct
200. Consider the given two statements:
| Assertion (A): |
Electrical synapse are rarer than chemical synapse in human body. |
| Reason (R): |
Electrical synapse are faster than the chemical synapse. |
| 1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A). |
| 2. |
(A) is True; (R) is False |
| 3. |
(A) is False; (R) is False |
| 4. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A). |
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