Custom Practice Test

Physics-Section-A

1.

The phase difference between velocity and displacement in a simple harmonic motion is:
1. $\pi$
2. $\frac{\pi}{2}$
3. $\frac{\pi}{4}$
4. zero

2.

A block of mass $10~\text{kg}$ is in contact with the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius $1~\text{m}.$ The coefficient of friction between the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is $0.1.$ The minimum angular velocity needed for the cylinder, which is vertical and rotating about its axis, will be:
$\left(g= 10~\text{m/s}^2\right )$
1. $10~\pi~\text{rad/s}$
2. $\sqrt{10}~\pi~\text{rad/s}$
3. $\frac{10}{2\pi}~\text{rad/s}$
4. $10~\text{rad/s}$

3. Given that the displacement of a particle is given by,
$x=A^{2}\sin^{2}kt$
where $t$ denotes the time. The unit of $k$ is:
1. hertz
2. metre
3. radian
4. second

4. A bullet from a gun is fired on a rectangular wooden block with velocity $u$. When bullet travels $24$ cm through the block along its length horizontally, velocity of bullet becomes $u/3$. Then it further penetrates into the block in the same direction before coming to rest exactly at the other end of the block. The total length of the block is:

1.	$30$ cm	2.	$27$ cm
3.	$24$ cm	4.	$28$ cm

5.

Three masses are placed on the $x$-axis: $300~\text{g}$ at origin, $500~\text{g}$ at $x= 40~\text{cm}$ and $400~\text{g}$ at $x= 70~\text{cm}.$ The distance of the centre of mass from the origin is:
1. $45~\text{cm}$
2. $50~\text{cm}$
3. $30~\text{cm}$
4. $40~\text{cm}$

6. The motion of a particle is given by $S=1+4t-2t^2$. The distance travelled by the particle during $t=0$ to $t=2$ seconds will be:

1.	$0$ unit	2.	$2$ unit
3.	$4$ unit	4.	$3$ unit

7. If the gravitational constant $G$ were twice as large, the time period of the earth's orbital motion (i.e., $1$ year) would be: (other parameters remaining the same)

1.	the same
2.	halved
3.	$\Large\frac{1}{\sqrt2}$ times the present value
4.	${\sqrt2}$ times the present value

8. The left end of a rod $AB,$ of cross-section $1~\text{cm}^2$ and length $2~\text m,$ is inserted into an oven at $200^\circ~\text C$ while its right end is kept in an ice-box. The sides of the rod are insulated to prevent any loss of heat, and the system is allowed to reach a steady state.

Ice is observed to melt and produce $12~\text g$ of water per min, within the ice-box. The specific latent heat of melting of ice is $336~\text{J/g}.$ The thermal current i.e., the rate of flow of heat from $A$ to $B$ is:

1.	$4.032~\text{kW}$	2.	$28~\text{W}$
3.	$67.2~\text{W}$	4.	$5.6~\text{W}$

9. The volume occupied by the molecules contained in $4.5~\text{kg}$ water at STP, if the molecular forces vanish away, is:
1. $5.6~\text{m}^3$
2. $5.6\times10^{6}~\text{m}^3$
3. $5.6\times10^{3}~\text{m}^3$
4. $5.6\times10^{-3}~\text{m}^3$

10.

A particle moves from a point $\left(\right. - 2 \hat{i} + 5 \hat{j} \left.\right)$ to $\left(\right. 4 \hat{j} + 3 \hat{k} \left.\right)$ when a force of $\left(\right. 4 \hat{i} + 3 \hat{j} \left.\right)$ $\text{N}$ is applied. How much work has been done by the force?

1.	$8$ J	2.	$11$ J
3.	$5$ J	4.	$2$ J

11.

A soap bubble, having a radius of $1~\text{mm}$, is blown from a detergent solution having a surface tension of $2.5\times 10^{-2}~\text{N/m}$. The pressure inside the bubble equals at a point $Z_0$ below the free surface of the water in a container. Taking $g = 10~\text{m/s}^{2}$, the density of water $= 10^{3}~\text{kg/m}^3$, the value of $Z_0$ is:
1. $0.5~\text{cm}$
2. $100~\text{cm}$
3. $10~\text{cm}$
4. $1~\text{cm}$

12.

The efficiency of an ideal heat engine (Carnot heat engine) working between the freezing point and boiling point of water is:
1. $26.8\%$
2. $20\%$
3. $6.25\%$
4. $12.5\%$

13.

The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when the same tension is applied?

1.	length = $100~\text{cm},$ diameter = $1~\text{mm}$
2.	length = $200~\text{cm},$ diameter = $2~\text{mm}$
3.	length = $300~\text{cm},$ diameter = $3~\text{mm}$
4.	length = $50~\text{cm},$ diameter = $0.5~\text{mm}$

14.

Two particles $A$ and $B$ are moving in a uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii $r_A$ and $r_B$ with speeds $v_A$ and $v_B$ respectively. Their time periods of rotation are the same. The ratio of the angular speed of $A$ to that of $B$ will be:

1.	$ 1: 1 $	2.	$r_A: r_B $
3.	$v_A: v_B $	4.	$r_B: r_A$

Physics-Section-B

15.

The magnitude of the vector
$\widehat i+\widehat i\times\widehat j+(\widehat i\times\widehat j)\times\widehat i+((\widehat i\times\widehat j)\times\widehat i)\times\widehat j$:
1. $1$
2. $\sqrt2$
3. $\sqrt3$
4. $2$

16. If the acceleration due to gravity is $10~\text{ms}^{-2}$ and the units of length and time are changed in kilometer and hour respectively, the numerical value of the acceleration due to gravity is:

1.	$ 360000 $	2.	$ 72000 $
3.	$ 36000 $	4.	$ 129600$

17.

A rod of mass $M$ and length $L$ is suspended vertically at its highest point. The rod is held so that it is horizontal and free to rotate about ${A}$ and then released. There is no friction anywhere.

The force exerted by the hinge at ${A},$ when the rod is at its lowest position is:
1. $2~Mg$
2. $3~Mg$
3. $4~Mg$
4. $2.5~Mg$

18. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	The total energy of a particle falling freely under gravity increases with time.
Statement II:	The law of conservation of mechanical energy does not apply to the motion of a projectile under gravity.

1.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

19. A person takes an aim at a monkey sitting on a tree and fires a bullet. If on seeing the smoke the monkey begins to fall freely, then the bullet will:

1.	hit the monkey.
2.	go above the monkey.
3.	go below the monkey.
4.	hit the monkey if the initial velocity of the bullet is more than a definite velocity.

20. A mass is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a certain initial velocity $\mathrm{u}.$ Which one of the following velocity-time $\mathrm{(v\text-t)}$ graphs represents the motion of the mass?

1.		2.
3.		4.

Chemistry-Section-A

21.

Match the coordination number and type of hybridization with the distribution of hybrid orbitals in space based on Valence bond theory.

	Coordination number and type of hybridisation		Distribution of hybrid orbitals in space
(a)	4, sp³	(i)	Trigonal bipyramidal
(b)	4, dsp²	(ii)	Octahedral
(c)	5, sp³d	(iii)	Tetrahedral
(d)	6, d²sp³	(iv)	Square planar

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
2.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)
3.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
4.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)

22.

The first ionization energy value $(kJ)$ ${mol}^{- 1}$ for $H,$ $Li,$ $F,$ $and$ $Na$
is given below but not in a correct order
$1681,$ $520,$ $1312,$ $495 .$
The ionization energy value of H would be -
1. 1681
2. 1312
3. 520
4. 485

23. The values of x and y in the following redox reaction are:
$\mathrm{xCl}_2+6 \mathrm{OH}^{-} \rightarrow \mathrm{ClO}_3^{-}+\mathrm{yCl}^{-}+3 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}$ are:
1. x = 2 , y = 4
2. x = 5 , y = 3
3. x = 3 , y = 5
4. x = 4 , y = 2

24.

Which of the following statements are correct ?

(i)	Generally the radius trend and the ionization energy trend across a period are exact opposites.
(ii)	Electron affinity values of elements may be exothermic (negative) or endothermic (positive).
(iii)	The first ionization energy of sulphur is higher than that of phosphorus.
(iv)	$Te^{2-} > I^- > Cs^+ > Ba^{2+}$ represents the correct decreasing order of ionic radii.

1. (i), (iii) and (iv)
2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (ii) and (iv)
4. (i), (ii) and (iii)

25.

When 0.50 moles of BaCl₂are mixed with 0.20 moles of Na₃PO₄, what is the maximum number of moles of Ba₃(PO₄)₂ that can be formed?

1.	0.10	2.	0.20
3.	0.30	4.	0.40

26.

A bottle of dry ammonia and a bottle of dry hydrogen chloride connected through a long tube are opened simultaneously at both ends, the white ammonium chloride ring first formed will be
1. at the centre of the tube
2. near the hydrogen chloride bottle
3. near the ammonia bottle
4. throughout the length of the tube

27. The lowest value of n that allows h orbitals to exist is:
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

28.

P, Q and R in the above-mentioned sequence of reactions are respectively:

1.
2.
3.
4.

29.

A farmer was told that fishes were not fit for human consumption because a large amount of pesticides had accumulated in the tissues of fishes. This happens:
1. By the transfer of pesticides in the food chain.
2. By the degradation of pesticides.
3. By the reaction of pesticides with atmospheric oxygen.
4. By the reaction of pesticides with atmospheric carbon dioxide.

30. The incorrect statement among the following is:
1. All alkali metals are silvery white.
2. The density of potassium is less than that of sodium.
3. Compounds of group-1 elements are diamagnetic.
4. The melting point of group-1 elements increases down the group.

31. The value $|\Delta H| $ in kJ for the given reaction is:
$\frac{1}{2} C l_2(g) → C l^{-}(a q) $
(Given: $\Delta H_{\text {diss }} C l_2(g) → 2 C l(g) \quad 240 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{mol}^{-1} $$\Delta H_{eg} Cl(g) + e^- → Cl^-(g) -320~ \mathrm{ kJmol}^{-1}\\ \Delta H_{hydration} Cl^-(g) + aq → Cl^-(aq) -340~\mathrm{ kJmol}^{-1} ) $

1.	540	2.	620
3.	450	4.	470

32.

Which of the following cases leads to the reaction remaining fastest to completion?
1. $K = 1$
2. $K = 10$
3. $K = 10^{- 2}$
4. $K = 10^{2}$

33.

Alkyl cyanide $R-C \equiv N$ and alkyl isocyanides $R- \overset{+}{N} \equiv C^-$ are:

1.	Tautomers	2.	Metamers
3.	Functional isomers	4.	Geometrical isomers

34.

The correct statement among the following is :

1.	Sn²⁺ is an oxidizing agent while Pb⁴⁺ is a reducing agent.
2.	Sn²⁺ and Pb²⁺ both are oxidizing agents.
3.	Sn⁴⁺ is a reducing agent while Pb⁴⁺ is an oxidizing agent.
4.	Sn²⁺ is a reducing agent while Pb⁴⁺ is an oxidizing agent.

Chemistry-Section-B

35.

Which compound among the following has the highest lattice energy?
1. LiF
2. MgO
3. NaF
4. CaO

36.

For which of the following processes will the entropy increase?
1. Reaction of magnesium with oxygen to form magnesium oxide
2. Reaction of nitrogen and hydrogen to form ammonia
3. Sublimation of dry ice
4. Condensation of steam

37.

The rate of diffusion of two gases A and B is in the ratio of 1:4 and the B and C in the ratio 1:3 the rate of diffusion of C with respect to A is
1. 1/12
2. 12
3. 3
4. 4

38.

Given are the following sets of species:
(a) ${Zn}^{2 +}, {Ca}^{2 +}, {Ga}^{3 +}, {Al}^{3 +}$
(b) $K^{+}, {Ca}^{2 +}, {Sc}^{3 +}, {Cl}^{-}$
(c) $P^{3 -}, S^{2 -}, {Cl}^{-}, K^{+}$
(d) ${Ti}^{4 +}, Ar, {Cr}^{3 +}, V^{5 +}$
The sets containing only isoelectronic ions among the above are:
1. (a), (d)
2. (b), (c)
3. (c), (d)
4. (b), (d)

39.

Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4, and 5 are mixed in a vessel. Calculate the concentration of H⁺ion in the final mixture.
1. 1.11×10^-4 M
2. 3.7×10^-4 M

3. 3.7×10^-3 M

4. 1.11×10^-3 M

40. The quantum numbers $+{1 \over 2}$ and $-{1 \over 2}$ for the electron spin represent:

1.	Rotation of the electron in clockwise and anticlockwise directions, respectively.
2.	Rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise directions, respectively.
3.	The magnetic moment of the electrons pointing up and down, respectively.
4.	Two quantum mechanical spin states that have no classical analogues.

Biology-I-Section-A

41. That the pairing and separation of a pair of chromosomes would lead to the segregation of a pair of factors they carried is the argument that formed the basis for:

1.	the Law of Independent Assortment.
2.	the concept of Linkage
3.	the chromosomal theory of inheritance.
4.	the One Gene One Enzyme hypothesis.

42. The nutritive tissue endosperm is seen in the mature seeds of:

1.	Coconut	2.	Pea
3.	Gram	4.	Bean

43. Consider the following statements:

I:	Among invertebrates, maximum species richness is seen in insects
II:	Among vertebrates, maximum species richness is seen in mammals
III:	Among plants, algae have a greater diversity than angiosperms.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II and III are correct
3. Both I and III are correct
4. I, II and III are incorrect

44. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	The pyramid of biomass may be "inverted" in a pond ecosystem
Reason (R):	In a pond ecosystem, the standing crop of phytoplankton, the major producers, at any given point will be lower than the mass of the heterotrophs, such as fish and insects.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

45.

The deficiency symptoms of S and Ca will appear first in

(1) Both in young and old parts
(2) Only in young parts
(3) First in old parts
(4) First in young parts

46. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Inbreeding increases the chances of offspring being affected by recessive traits.
Reason (R):	Inbreeding increases the proportion of homozygous individuals in a population.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

47.

What initiation and termination factors are involved in transcription in prokaryotes?
1. $σ$ $and$ $ρ$ , respectively
2. $α$ $and$ $β$ , respectively
3. $β$ $and$ $γ$ , respectively
4. $α$ $and$ $σ$ , respectively

48. In the mitochondrial electron transport chain, Complex IV refers to:
1. NADH dehydrogenase
2. Cytochrome c oxidase complex
3. Ubiquinone
4. ATP synthase

49.

Callus from internodal segments of tobacco stem gets proliferated only if in addition to one of the following – extracts of vascular tissues, yeast extract, coconut milk or DNA, the nutrient medium also contains:

1.	Auxins	2.	Gibberellins
3.	ABA	4.	Ethylene

50. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Of the 46 chromosomes in a normal diploid human cell, half are maternally derived and half are paternally derived.
Reason (R):	Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of two haploid gametes to produce a zygote and a new organism, in which every cell has two sets of chromosomes.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

51. The commercial production of Citric acid and Statins is possible with which of the following classes of microbes?

1.	Algae	2.	Fungi
3.	Bacteria	4.	Protists

52.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Population interaction	Species A	Species B
1.	Mutualism	+	+
2.	Predation	+	-
3.	Parasitism	-	-
4.	Commensalism	+	0

53. Identify the plant, anecdotally known as the "terror of Bengal" due to its invasive growth tendencies, that was introduced into India as an ornamental plant:
1. Parthenium hysterophorus
2. Lantana camara
3. Eicchornia crassipes
4. Acacia dealbata

54. When the CO₂: O₂ is nearly equal:
1. RuBisCO has a much greater affinity for CO₂
2. RuBisCO has a much greater affinity for O₂
3. RuBisCO has an equal affinity for CO₂ and O₂
4. RuBisCO has no affinity for CO₂

Biology-I-Section-B

55. Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?
1. Cockroach
2. House ﬂy
3. Fire ﬂy
4. Grasshopper

56. How many of the given statements are true?

I:	The cyanobacteria that are also referred to as blue green algae are not ‘algae’.
II:	Yeast, although unicellular, are fungi.
III:	Mycoplasma lack a cell wall but are bacteria.

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

57. Which of the following shows opposite phyllotaxy?

1.	Mustard	2.	China rose
3.	Alstonia	4.	Calotropis

58. Evolutionarily, pteridophytes are the first:

1.	plants with haplontic life cycle
2.	terrestrial plants with dominant gametophytic generation
3.	plants to produce flowers pollinated by insects
4.	terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues

59.

Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system?

1.	Lysosome	2.	Golgi complex
3.	Peroxisome	4.	Vacuole

60. The parallel venation in monocot leaves is reflected in the:

1.	near similar sizes of vascular bundles, including main veins, as seen in vertical sections of the leaves.
2.	near similar sizes of vascular bundles, except in main veins, as seen in vertical sections of the leaves.
3.	large sizes of vascular bundles in mid rib and smaller in veins, as seen in vertical sections of the leaves.
4.	smaller sizes of vascular bundles in mid rib and larger in veins, as seen in vertical sections of the leaves.

Biology-II-Section-A

61. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Myasthenia gravis	An auto-immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle.
2.	Muscular dystrophy	Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to a genetic disorder.
3.	Tetany	Rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle due to high Ca²⁺ in body fluid.
4.	Gout	Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals.

62. MTP was first legalised in India in:

1.	1951	2.	1971
3.	2017	4.	2023

63. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	When we look at stars on a clear night sky we are, in a way, looking back in time.
Reason (R):	When we see objects in our immediate surroundings, we see them instantly and hence in the present time.

1.	(A) is False but (R) is True
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

64. During the movement of the glomerular ultrafiltrate through the descending limb of the loop of Henle:
I: water moves into the nephron
II: solutes move out of the nephron
III: water moves out of the nephron
1. Only I
2. Only II and III
3. Only III
4. Only I and II

65. Each time the sodium-potassium pump works, it pumps:
1. the anions as well with sodium to the outside
2. the anions as well with potassium to the inside
3. 3 sodium ions outwards
4. 3 potassium ions inwards

66. A hypothetical double stranded DNA molecule contains 25 each of the four nitrogenous bases – A, T, G and C. The total number of hydrogen bonds in this molecule will be:
1. 50
2. 100
3. 125
4. 150

67. If you examine the blood film of a normal person, which of the following WBCs is least likely to be seen?

1.	neutrophils	2.	eosinophils
3.	basophils	4.	lymphocytes

68. If the adenohypophysis fails to stop producing growth hormone (GH) after body growth is completed, the person may suffer from:
1. Cretinism
2. Dwarfism
3. Acromegaly
4. Gigantism

69. Inspiration is initiated by:
1. the contraction of diaphragm
2. the relaxation of diaphragm
3. the contraction of external intercostals
4. the contraction of internal intercostals

70.

ELISA is based on the principle of:

1.	Complementary hybridization of nucleic acids
2.	Antigen-antibody interaction
3.	Clonal selection
4.	Southern blot

71.

While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the following enzymes is not required?
1. Lysozyme
2. Ribonuclease
3. Deoxyribonuclease
4. Protease

72.

In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish between self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self–cells, then it leads to:

1.	graft rejection	2.	auto-immune disease
3.	active immunity	4.	allergic response

73. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	When swallowing, the soft palate would have to move downward in order to prevent food from entering the lungs.
Statement II:	When swallowing the epiglottis allows the food to enter the larynx.

1. Statement I is correct: Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct: Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is incorrect

74. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	The part of the oviducts (fallopian tubes) closer to the ovary is the funnel-shaped infundibulum.
Statement II:	The last part of the oviduct, isthmus, has a narrow lumen and it joins the uterus.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

Biology-II-Section-B

75. Over two-thirds of all named species on earth are:
1. Molluscs
2. Arthropods
3. Chordates
4. Sponges

76. The molecule shown in the given figure:

1.	is a lipid
2.	constitutes majority of a cell membrane in animal cells
3.	is a macromolecule
4.	is hydrophilic

77. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Blood type]		Column II [Can receive blood from]
A	A	P	A and O
B	B	Q	Only O
C	AB	R	A, B, AB and O
D	O	S	B and O

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	S	P	Q	R
2.	P	S	R	Q
3.	P	Q	S	R
4.	S	P	R	Q

78. Goblet cells, present in alimentary canal, are used in:
1. Absorption
2. Protection
3. Secretion of mucus
4. Contraction

79.

Consider the given statements:

I:	The crop in the alimentary canal of cockroach is also known as proventriculus, has six highly chitinous plates called teeth and helps in grinding food particles.
II:	The gizzard is sac-like structure used for storing food in cockroach.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

80.

Consider the following two statements:

I:	The lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber which is anatomically an air-tight chamber.
II:	This arrangement is essential as we cannot directly alter the thoracic volume.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II correctly explains I
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3.	I is correct and II is incorrect
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

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1.	the same
2.	halved
3.	\(\Large\frac{1}{\sqrt2}\) times the present value
4.	\({\sqrt2}\) times the present value

1.	\(4.032~\text{kW}\)	2.	\(28~\text{W}\)
3.	\(67.2~\text{W}\)	4.	\(5.6~\text{W}\)

1.	length = \(100~\text{cm},\) diameter = \(1~\text{mm}\)
2.	length = \(200~\text{cm},\) diameter = \(2~\text{mm}\)
3.	length = \(300~\text{cm},\) diameter = \(3~\text{mm}\)
4.	length = \(50~\text{cm},\) diameter = \(0.5~\text{mm}\)

1.	\(30\) cm	2.	\(27\) cm
3.	\(24\) cm	4.	\(28\) cm

1.	\(0\) unit	2.	\(2\) unit
3.	\(4\) unit	4.	\(3\) unit

1.	\(8\) J	2.	\(11\) J
3.	\(5\) J	4.	\(2\) J

1.	\( 1: 1 \)	2.	\(r_A: r_B \)
3.	\(v_A: v_B \)	4.	\(r_B: r_A\)

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