Physics-Section-A
1. Which graph represents the best possible variation of escape velocity
\((v_E)\) of earth with the mass of earth
\((M)?\) (the radius of the Earth is constant.)
2. A stone is thrown vertically downwards with an initial velocity of \(40\) m/s from the top of a building. If it reaches the ground with a velocity of \(60\) m/s, then the height of the building is: (take \(g=10\) m/s2)
1. \(120\) m
2. \(140\) m
3. \(80\) m
4. \(100\) m
3. \(1~\text g\) of water of volume \(1~\text{cm}^3\) at \(100^\circ \text{C}\) is converted into steam at the same temperature under normal atmospheric pressure \(\approx 1\times10^{5}~\text{Pa}.\) The volume of steam formed equals \(1671~\text{cm}^3.\) If the specific latent heat of vaporization of water is \(2256~\text{J/g},\) the change in internal energy is:
1. \(2423~\text J\)
2. \(2089~\text J\)
3. \(167~\text J\)
4. \(2256~\text J\)
4. If dimensions of critical velocity \({v_c}\) of a liquid flowing through a tube are expressed as \(\eta^{x}\rho^yr^{z}\), where \(\eta, \rho~\text{and}~r\) are the coefficient of viscosity of the liquid, the density of the liquid, and the radius of the tube respectively, then the values of \({x},\) \({y},\) and \({z},\) respectively, will be:
1. \(1,-1,-1\)
2. \(-1,-1,1\)
3. \(-1,-1,-1\)
4. \(1,1,1\)
5. The resultant of two vectors \(\overrightarrow A\) and \(4\hat i\) is \(\overrightarrow R\). The resultant of \(\overrightarrow A\) and \(8\hat i\) is perpendicular to \(\overrightarrow A\). The magnitude of \(\overrightarrow R\) will be:
1. \(4\)
2. \(3\)
3. \(2\)
4. \(1\)
6. The molecules of a given mass of gas have RMS velocity of \(200~\text{ms}^{-1}\) at \(27^\circ \text{C}\) and \(1.0\times 10^{5}~\text{Nm}^{-2}\) pressure. When the temperature and the pressure of the gas are respectively, \(127^\circ \text{C}\) and \(0.05\times10^{5}~\text{Nm}^{-2},\) the RMS velocity of its molecules in \((\text{ms}^{-1})\) is:
1. \(\frac{400}{\sqrt{3}}\)
2. \(\frac{100\sqrt{2}}{3}\)
3. \(\frac{100}{3}\)
4. \(100\sqrt{2}\)
7. A cyclist comes to a skidding stop over a distance of \(10~\text{m}\). During the process, the force on the cycle due to the road is \(200~\text{N}\) and directly opposed to the motion. How much work does the road do on the cycle?
1. zero
2. \(2000~\text{J}\)
3. \(-2000~\text{J}\)
4. \(-200~\text{J}\)
8. The following figures show a liquid flowing ideally through a tapered tube. Single-tube manometers are connected at three positions along the tube. Identify the diagram showing the correct rise of liquid in the tubes.
9. A car of mass \(m\) is moving on a level circular track of radius \(R\). If \(\mu_s\) represents the static friction between the road and tyres of the car, the maximum speed of the car in circular motion is given by:
1. |
\(\sqrt{\dfrac{Rg}{\mu_s} }\) |
2. |
\(\sqrt{\dfrac{mRg}{\mu_s}}\) |
3. |
\(\sqrt{\mu_s Rg}\) |
4. |
\(\sqrt{\mu_s m Rg}\) |
10. Two identical projectiles are simultaneously launched into the air, with the same speed but in opposite directions – inclined at
\(60^\circ\) to the horizontal. Ignore any air resistance. Their centre-of-mass:
1. |
remains at rest |
2. |
moves along a horizontal straight line |
3. |
moves along a vertical straight line |
4. |
moves along a parabolic path |
11. A block connected to a spring undergoes a displacement given by: \(x=(2~\text{cm})\sin\big\{(5~\text s^{-1})t+{\large\frac{\pi}{6}}\big\}~\)
The time period of the motion is:
1. \(5~\text{s}\)
2. \(10~\text{s}\)
3. \(\large\frac{5}{2\pi}\)\(~\text{s}\)
4. \(\large\frac{2\pi}{5}\)\(~\text{s}\)
12. If the temperature (in
\(^\circ\text C\)) of a blackbody is increased
\(2\)-fold, then the rate of radiation from the body will become:
1. |
\(16\)-fold |
2. |
\(4\)-fold |
3. |
less than \(16\)-fold |
4. |
more than \(16\)-fold |
13. The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when the same tension is applied?
1. |
length = \(100~\text{cm},\) diameter = \(1~\text{mm}\) |
2. |
length = \(200~\text{cm},\) diameter = \(2~\text{mm}\) |
3. |
length = \(300~\text{cm},\) diameter = \(3~\text{mm}\) |
4. |
length = \(50~\text{cm},\) diameter = \(0.5~\text{mm}\) |
14. An elephant pulls a large tree trunk,
\(4\) km in a direction
\(50^\circ\) east of north. What are the components of the elephant's displacement in the easterly and northerly directions?
(Given,
\(\mathrm{sin}50^\circ=0.766\) and
\(\mathrm{cos}50^\circ=0.642\))
1. |
\(3.06\) km east and \(2.57\) km north |
2. |
\(2.57\) km east and \(3.06\) km north |
3. |
\(3.94\) km east and \(0.69\) km north |
4. |
\(0.69\) km east and \(3.94\) km north |
Physics-Section-B
15. The least count of a stopwatch is
\(0.1\) sec. The time of
\(20\) oscillations of the pendulum is found to be
\(20\) sec. The percentage error in the time period is:
1.
\(0.25\%\)
2.
\(0.5\%\)
3.
\(0.75\%\)
4.
\(1.0\%\)
16. Consider the two situations
\(A\) and
\(B\text:\)
\((A)\) a man pushes a block along a smooth horizontal plane with a force
\(F\) (figure
\(\mathrm A\))
\((B)\) a man pulls an identical block along a smooth horizontal plane, applying an equally inclined force
\(F\) (figure
\(\mathrm B\))
![](https://d2f8z173p7073l.cloudfront.net/1706859373846)
Normal reaction of the plane on the block:
1. |
is greater in \((A)\) than in \((B)\) |
2. |
is greater in \((B)\) than in \((A)\) |
3. |
is equal for \((A)\) and \((B)\) |
4. |
can be greater, lesser or equal for \(A\) compared to \(B\) depending on the magnitude of \(F.\) |
17. A body has an initial velocity of \(3~\text{m/s}\) and has an acceleration of \(1~\text{m/s}^2\) normal to the direction of the initial velocity. Its velocity \(4~\text{s}\) after the start will be:
1. |
\(7~\text{m/s}\) along the direction of the initial velocity. |
2. |
\(7~\text{m/s}\) along the normal to the direction of the initial velocity. |
3. |
\(7~\text{m/s}\) midway between the initial direction and the direction normal to the initial direction. |
4. |
\(5~\text{m/s}\) at an angle of \({\tan}^{-1}(4/3)\) with the direction of the initial velocity. |
18. Buses ply between two towns,
\((A,B)\) separated by
\(6~\text{km:}\) those going from
\(A\) towards
\(B\) go at
\(20~\text{km/h}\) while those going from
\(B\) to
\(A\) go at
\(30~\text{km/h}.\) If a passenger were to make a round trip from
\(A\) to
\(B\) and back, without stopping, his average speed will be:
1. |
\(25~\text{km/h}\) |
2. |
\(24~\text{km/h}\) |
3. |
\(27~\text{km/h}\) |
4. |
\(28~\text{km/h}\) |
19. The magnitude of the vector
\(\widehat i+\widehat i\times\widehat j+(\widehat i\times\widehat j)\times\widehat i+((\widehat i\times\widehat j)\times\widehat i)\times\widehat j\):
1. \(1\)
2. \(\sqrt2\)
3. \(\sqrt3\)
4. \(2\)
20. How many
\(2.5\) kg bricks can a man carry up a staircase
\(3.6\) m high in one hour if he works at the average rate of
\(9.8\) watts?
1. |
\(800\) |
2. |
\(200\) |
3. |
\(600\) |
4. |
\(400\) |
Chemistry-Section-A
21. Select the correct statement from the following statements?
(1) CO which is a major pollutant resulting from the combustion of fuels in automobiles plays a major role in photochemical smog
(2) Classical smog has an oxidizing character while the photochemical smog is reducing in character
(3) Photochemical smog occurs in day time whereas the classical smog occurs in the morning hours
(4) During formation of smog the level of ozone in the atmosphere goes down
22. The incorrect statement among the following is:
1. All alkali metals are silvery white.
2. The density of potassium is less than that of sodium.
3. Compounds of group-1 elements are diamagnetic.
4. The melting point of group-1 elements increases down the group.
23. The isostructural pairs among the following are:
A. |
\( \mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-} \ and \ \mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{2-}\) |
B. |
\(\mathrm{SiCl}_{4} \ and \ \mathrm{TiCl}_{4}\) |
C. |
\(\mathrm{NH}_{3} \ and \ \mathrm{NO}_{3}^{-} \) |
D. |
\(\mathrm{BCl}_{3} \ and \ \mathrm{BrCl}_{3}\) |
1. C and D only
2. A and B only
3. A and C only
4. B and C only
24. Nitrogen occurs in the form of two isotopes with atomic masses 14 and 15, respectively. The average atomic mass of nitrogen is 14.0067. The % abundance of isotope with atomic mass 14 is:
1. 99.3 %
2. 86.4 %
3. 82.1 %
4. 92.2 %
25. Which of the following cannot act as an oxidizing agent?
1.
2.
3.
4.
26. Mark the correct statement regarding entropy.
1. |
At 0°C, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is taken to be zero. |
2. |
At absolute zero temperature, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is positive. |
3. |
At absolute zero temperature, the entropy of all crystalline substances is taken to be zero. |
4. |
At absolute zero temperature, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is taken to be zero. |
27. In which shell of hydrogen atom, velocity of electron is the highest?
1. |
1st shell |
2. |
2nd shell |
3. |
3rd shell |
4. |
4th shell |
28. In a basic buffer, 0.0025 mole of NH
4Cl and 0.15 mole of NH
4OH are present. The pH of the solution will be :
(Given pK
b = 4.74)
1. |
11.04 |
2. |
10.24 |
3. |
6.52 |
4. |
5.48 |
29. A sealed tube which can withstand a pressure of 3 atmosphere is filled with air at and 760 mm pressure. The tube will burst at -
1. 900°C
2. 627°C
3. 726°C
4. 1173°C
30. The number of isomers (including stereoisomers) possible for the formula C2H2Br2 are:
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
31. Diamond and graphite both are made of carbon atoms. Diamond is extremely hard whereas graphite is soft. This is because :
1. |
Diamond has carbon-carbon double bond while graphite has carbon-carbon single bond |
2. |
Diamond is ionic whereas graphite is covalent |
3. |
Diamond has a strong covalent bond with regular tetrahedron pattern |
4. |
Certain atoms in diamond are smaller in size |
32. The oxidation states of the most electronegative element in the products of the reaction between with dil. are–
1. 0, and –1
2. –1, and –2
3. –2, and 0
4. –2, and + 1
33. The pair of elements where the addition of a second electron to each atom is endothermic is:
1. N, Ne
2. Be, F
3. B, C
4. All of the above
34. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
(a) |
Separation of aniline-water mixture |
(i) |
Fractional distillation |
(b) |
Separation of aniline-chloroform mixture |
(ii) |
Distillation under reduced pressure |
(c) |
Separation of glycerol from spent-lye |
(iii) |
Distillation |
(d) |
Separation of different fractions of crude oil |
(iv) |
Steam distillation |
Codes:
|
(a) |
(b) |
(c) |
(d) |
1. |
(i) |
(iii) |
(ii) |
(iv) |
2. |
(iv) |
(i) |
(iii) |
(ii) |
3. |
(iv) |
(ii) |
(iii) |
(i) |
4. |
(iv) |
(iii) |
(ii) |
(i) |
Chemistry-Section-B
35. A spherical balloon of 21 cm dimeter is to be filled up with H2 at NTP from a cylinder containing the gas at 20 atm at 27o The cylinder can hold 2.82 litre of water at NTP. Calculate the number of balloons that can be filled up.
a) 20
b) 10
c) 15
d) 60
36. Match the oxide given in Column I with its property given in Column II:
|
Column I |
|
Column II |
(i) |
|
(a) |
Neutral |
(ii) |
|
(b) |
Basic |
(iii) |
|
(c) |
Acidic |
(iv) |
|
(d) |
Amphoteric |
Which of the following options is correct?
|
(i) |
(ii) |
(iii) |
(iv) |
1. |
(b) |
(a) |
(d) |
(c) |
2. |
(c) |
(b) |
(a) |
(d) |
3. |
(a) |
(d) |
(b) |
(c) |
4. |
(b) |
(d) |
(a) |
(c) |
37. The correct order of first ionization enthalpy for the given four element is:
1. |
C < N < F < O |
2. |
C < N < O < F |
3. |
C < O < N < F |
4. |
C < F < N < O |
38. If the value of m for an electron is +3, it may be found in :
1. |
4s orbital |
2. |
4p orbital |
3. |
In any f-orbital |
4. |
In any d-orbital |
39. A compound contains 17.28 % nitrogen, and its molecular mass is 162. The number of nitrogen atoms present in one molecule of the alkaloid are:
1. Five
2. Four
3. Three
4. Two
40. Which of the following is/are correct about isothermal expansion of work?
1. \(\omega_{irreversible} = \omega_{reversible}\)
2. \(\omega_{irreversible} > \omega_{reversible}\)
3. \(\omega_{irreversible} < \omega_{reversible}\)
4. All of the above
Biology-I-Section-A
41. Identify the plant, anecdotally known as the "terror of Bengal" due to its invasive growth tendencies, that was introduced into India as an ornamental plant:
1.
Parthenium hysterophorus
2.
Lantana camara
3.
Eicchornia crassipes
4.
Acacia dealbata
42. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): |
Inbreeding increases the chances of offspring being affected by recessive traits. |
Reason (R): |
Inbreeding increases the proportion of homozygous individuals in a population. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A). |
3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are False. |
43. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: |
In C4 plants, photorespiration does not occur. |
Statement II: |
C4 plants do not have RuBisCO in any of their cells. |
1. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I |
2. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I |
3. |
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect |
4. |
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct |
44. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: |
In water pollinated plants such as seagrasses, female flowers remain submerged in water. |
Statement II: |
Pollen grains in such plants are released on to the surface of water. |
1. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct |
2. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct |
3. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect |
4. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect |
45. The largest tiger reserve in India is:
1. Valmiki
2. Nagarjunsagar - Srisailam
3. Periyar
4. Nagarhole
46. Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers is called as:
1. Gross primary productivity
2. Net primary productivity
3. Secondary productivity
4. Tertiary productivity
47. The number of correct statements regarding sponges are:
I: |
In sponges, food is digested in the spongocoel. |
II: |
When sponges reproduce asexually by buds, these are called gemmules |
III: |
Sponge bodies are organized at the tissue level of structure. |
IV: |
The collar of the collar cell is composed of microvilli. |
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
48. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): |
Plant growth is intimately linked to the water status of the plant while development is not. |
Reason (R): |
The plant cells grow in size by cell enlargement which in turn requires water. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A). |
3. |
(A) is True; (R) is False. |
4. |
(A) is False; (R) is True. |
49. What is the number of ATP molecules produced by substrate-level phosphorylation from the complete breakdown of a single molecule of glucose in the presence of oxygen?
50. Which fact regarding the Human Genome Project is not correct?
1. |
The Human Genome Project was a 13-year project coordinated by the U.S. Department of Energy and the National Institute of Health. |
2. |
Many non-human model organisms, such as bacteria, yeast, Caenorhabditis Elegans (a free-living non-pathogenic nematode), Drosophila (the fruit fly), plants (rice and Arabidopsis), etc., have also been sequenced. |
3. |
The sequence of chromosome 1 was completed only in May 2016 (this was the last of the 24 human chromosomes – 22 autosomes and X and Y – to be sequenced). |
4. |
The fragments were sequenced using automated DNA sequencers that worked on the principle of a method developed by Frederick Sanger. |
51. Imagine a land area is getting newly colonized by humans for the first time. The population in this area will primarily be decided by:
1. |
Natality |
2. |
Mortality |
3. |
Immigration |
4. |
Emigration |
52. Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of?
1. |
Vitamin D |
2. |
Vitamin A |
3. |
Vitamin B12 |
4. |
Vitamin E |
53. Which of the following is an amide involved in nitrogen metabolism by plants?
1. Methionine
2. Cysteine
3. Serine
4. Asparagine
54. While carrying out a dihybrid cross [a mating of two organisms heterozygous for two traits], a phenotype ratio of 9:3:3:1 in the offspring is expected when:
1. |
the genes are linked [located on the same chromosome |
2. |
each gene contains two mutations |
3. |
the gene pairs assort independently during meiosis |
4. |
the alleles of both genes show either co-dominance or incomplete dominance |
Biology-I-Section-B
55. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion(A): |
In cymose type of inflorescence, the main axis is limited in growth. |
Reason (R): |
In cymose type of inflorescence, the flowers are borne in a basipetal order. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A). |
3. |
(A) is True; (R) is False |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are False |
56. In angiosperms:
1. |
the outside of the root epidermis is often covered with a waxy thick layer called the cuticle. |
2. |
the guard cells possess chloroplasts. |
3. |
the root hairs are usually multi-cellular. |
4. |
the trichomes in the shoot system are usually unicellular. |
57. What characters will be similar in members of Kingdom Fungi and Kingdom Animalia as per Whittaker’s Five Kingdom Classification?
a. Cell type
b. Cell wall
c. Body organisation
1. |
Only a |
2. |
Only b and c |
3. |
Only a and c |
4. |
Only c |
58. Besides starch, pyrenoids in many members of Chlorophyceae, contain:
1. |
Double-stranded DNA |
2. |
A low molecular weight RNA |
3. |
Protein |
4. |
Lipids |
59. Bacterial cells, if motile, will move with the help of:
1. |
Cilia |
2. |
Flagella |
3. |
Myocytes |
4. |
Pseudopodia |
60. The system of Binomial Nomenclature was given by:
1. R. H. Whittaker
2. Carolus Linnaeus
3. Carl Woose
4. Copeland
Biology-II-Section-A
61. Normal osmolality of body fluids in vertebrates is about 300 mOSML-1. Kidneys can produce urine that is hypotonic to blood plasma are produced. This can happen when:
1. levels of aldosterone are high
2. levels of antidiuretic hormone are high
3. levels of antidiuretic hormone are low
4. plasma concentration of sodium ions are high
62. Consider the given two statements:
I: |
The type of antigen present on the RBCs of a person with blood group type A is A |
II: |
The type of antibodies present in the plasma of a person with blood group type A is anti-A |
1. |
Only I is correct |
2. |
Only II is correct |
3. |
Both I and II are correct |
4. |
Both I and II are incorrect |
63. The figure shows an axon terminal and synapse. Select the option giving correct identifications of labels A-D.
![](https://d2f8z173p7073l.cloudfront.net/1670390128539)
1. A-Action potential C-Neurotransmitter
2. B-Neurotransmitter D-Receptor capsules
3. C-Receptor D-Synaptic vesicles
4. A-Axon terminal B-Serotonin complex
64. Identify the hormone that is primarily responsible for maintaining the uterine lining [endometrium] during pregnancy:
1. Estrogen
2. Progesterone
3. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
4. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
65. Androgens:
I: |
regulate the development, maturation and functions of the male accessory sex organs. |
II: |
stimulate muscular growth, growth of facial and axillary hair, aggressiveness, low pitch of voice etc. |
III: |
play a major stimulatory role in the process of spermatogenesis (formation of spermatozoa). |
IV: |
act on the central neural system and influence the male sexual behaviour (libido). |
V: |
produce anabolic (synthetic) effects on protein and carbohydrate metabolism. |
1. Only
I,
II and
III are correct
2. Only
II,
III and
V are correct
3. Only
III,
IV and
V are correct
4.
I,
II,
III,
IV and
V are correct
66. What percentage of the oxyhemoglobin in the arterial blood dissociates in one pass through the systemic capillaries under resting conditions?
1. 10-12 %
2. 20-25 %
3. 50-60 %
4. 85-97 %
67. Embryological support for evolution, proposed by Ernst Heckel, was disapproved by:
1. |
Charles Lyell |
2. |
Georges Cuvier |
3. |
Charles Darwin |
4. |
von Baer |
68. Select incorrect statement, regarding chemical structure of insulin:
1. |
Mature insulin molecule consists of three polypeptide chains - A, B and C. |
2. |
Insulin is synthesized as prohormone which contains extra stretch of C-peptide. |
3. |
C-peptide is not present in mature insulin molecule. |
4. |
Polypeptide chains A and B are linked to disulphide bridges. |
69. Identify the incorrect statement:
1. |
CDRI, located at Lucknow, has developed ‘Saheli’ – a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill |
2. |
Amniocentesis is statutorily banned in India for Pre Natal Sex Determination |
3. |
An ideal contraceptive should both be effective and reversible |
4. |
Increasing birth rate is the main cause of the increase in the population of India today |
70. Separation of DNA, fragments is done by a technique known as :
1. Polymerase Chain Reaction
2. Recombinant technology
3. Southern blotting
4. Gel electrophoresis
71. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): |
Cocaine has a potent stimulating action on central nervous system, producing a sense of euphoria and increased energy. |
Reason (R): |
Cocaine interferes with the transport of the neuro-transmitter dopamine. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A) |
2. |
(A) is True; (R) is False |
3. |
(A) is False; (R) is True |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A). |
72. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: |
When swallowing, the soft palate would have to move downward in order to prevent food from entering the lungs. |
Statement II: |
When swallowing the epiglottis allows the food to enter the larynx. |
1. Statement I is correct: Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct: Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is incorrect
73. ________ is the most abundant protein in animal world and _________ is the most abundant protein in
the whole of the biosphere.
1. Collagen, RuBisCO
2. RuBisCO, Collagen
3. Keratin, Collagen
4. Haemoglobin, RuBisCO
74. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle contraction:
1. |
Calcium |
2. |
Magnesium |
3. |
Sodium |
4. |
Potassium |
Biology-II-Section-B
75. Consider the given two statements:
I: |
SA node is the natural pacemaker of the human heart. |
II: |
SA node is the only part of that nodal musculature that is auto-excitable. |
1. |
Only I is correct |
2. |
Only II is correct |
3. |
Both I and II are correct |
4. |
Both I and II are incorrect |
76. Identify the correct statement regarding classification of chordates:
1. |
Vertebrata is a subphylum; Agnatha is a division and Pisces is a super-class |
2. |
Vertebrata is a supraphylum; Agnatha is a phylum and Pisces is a super-class |
3. |
Vertebrata is a subphylum; Agnatha is a division and Pisces is a class |
4. |
Vertebrata is a subphylum; Agnatha is a super-class and Pisces is a class |
77. Consider the given two statements:
Statement 1: |
Certain amino acids are essential for our health. |
Statement 2: |
Only such amino acids are used to make proteins in our body according to our own genetic code. |
1. |
Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 correctly explains Statement 1 |
2. |
Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 does not correctly explain Statement 1 |
3. |
Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect |
4. |
Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct |
78. Goblet cells, present in alimentary canal, are used in:
1. Absorption
2. Protection
3. Secretion of mucus
4. Contraction
79. Consider the following statements:
I: |
The diffusing capacity of CO2 across the respiratory membrane is higher than that of O2 |
II: |
The presence of Hb increases the efficiency of O2 transport by about 10 times. |
III: |
Carbon monoxide binds to Hb with much more tenacity with respect to O2 |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. |
I and II only |
2. |
I and III only |
3. |
II and III only |
4. |
I, II, and III |
80. Identify the correct statements:
Statement I: |
Frog eye does not have closable eye lids. |
Statement II: |
A nictitating membrane provides protection to the eye, especially when the frog is swimming. |
1.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is incorrect
2.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is incorrect
3.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is correct
4.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is correct
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