Custom Practice Test

Chemistry-Section-A

1.

Which of the following sequences accurately represents the correct order?
1. F>N>C>Si>Ga - non-metallic character.
2. F>O>Cl >N - oxidising property.
3. C<Si>P>N - electron affinity value.
4. All of the above.

2.

Cellulose upon acetylation with excess acetic anhydride/H₂SO₄ (catalytic) gives cellulose triacetate whose structure is –

3.

In the chemical reactions,

the compounds 'A' and 'B', respectively, are:
1. Nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene
2. Nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene
3. Phenol and benzene
4. Benzene diazonium chloride and fluorobenzene

4.

To which group does the element named ununtrium (Uut) belong according to the IUPAC naming convention?
1. s-block element
2. p-block element
3. d-block element
4. Actinoids

5.

Inorganic benzene is:
1. $BN$
2. ${BF}_{4}$
3. $B_{2} H_{6}$
4. $B_{3} N_{3} H_{6}$

6. The correct IUPAC name for [CrF₂(en)₂]Cl is:

1.	Chlorodifluoridoethylenediaminechromium(III) chloride
2.	Bis-(ethylenediamine)difluoridochromium(III) chloride
3.	Difluorobis-(ethylenediamine)chromium(III) chloride
4.	Chlorodifluoridobis(ethylenediamine)chromium (III)

7. Which of the following oxide is basic in nature?
1. SiO₂
2. CaO
3. Al₂O₃
4. SO₂

8.

$H_2SO_4 $ is preferred over $HCl$ to create an acidic medium for $KMnO_4$ in redox reactions, because:

1.	$H_2SO_4 $ is stronger acid than $HCl$.
2.	$HCl$ is oxidised by $KMnO_4$ to $Cl_2$.
3.	$H_2SO_4 $ is dibasic acid.
4.	Rate is faster in presence of $H_2SO_4 $.

9.

Deficiency of which vitamin causes osteomalacia?
1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin D
3. Vitamin K
4. Vitamin E

10.

The species that does not contain peroxide ions is:
1. PbO₂
2. H₂O₂
3. SrO₂
4. BaO₂

11.

The correct statements among the following are:

(I)	Valence bond theory cannot explain the color exhibited by transition metal complexes.
(II)	Valence bond theory can predict quantitatively the magnetic properties of transition metal complexes.
(III)	Valence bond theory cannot distinguish ligands as weak and strong field ones.

1. (I), (II), and (III)
2. (II), and (III) only
3. (I), and (II) only
4. (I), and (III) only

12.

Assertion (A):	Zn(ll) salts are diamagnetic.
Reason (R):	Zn²⁺ ion has one unpaired electron.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

13. Which of the following pairs is expected to have the same bond order?
1. $\mathrm{O}_2^{-}, \mathrm{N}_2^{-}$
2. $\mathrm{O}_2^{-}, \mathrm{N}_2^{+}$
3. $\mathrm{O}_2^{+}, \mathrm{N}_2^{-} $
4. $\mathrm{O}_2, \mathrm{~N}_2 $

14.

Which among the following molecule/ion has linear shape but hybridisation of the central atom is not exhibited to be sp?
1. CO₂
2. BeCl₂
3. $I^-_3$
4. All of these

15.

In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had taken $O_{2}^{+} {PtF}_{6}^{-}$ as a base compound. This is because:

1.	Both O₂and Xe have the same size.
2.	Both O₂ and Xe have the same electron gain enthalpy.
3.	Both O₂ and Xe have almost the same ionisation enthalpy.
4.	Both Xe and O₂ are gases.

16. Which of the following could be the electronic configuration of an excited oxygen atom?
1. 1s²2s²2p⁴
2. 1s²2s²2p⁵
3. 1s²2s²2p³3s¹
4. 1s²2s²2p⁴3s¹

17.

Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of:

1.	Lanthanoid contraction
2.	Having similar chemical properties
3.	Belonging to the same group
4.	Diagonal relationship

18.

The diamide of carbonic acid is:
(1) acetamide
(2) formamide
(3) benzamide
(4) urea

19.

Biuret test is not given by:
(1) proteins
(2) carbohydrates
(3) polypeptides
(4) urea

20. The correct order of the boiling point of the hydrides of 15th group is:
1. NH₃>BiH₃>SbH₃>AsH₃>PH₃
2. BiH₃>NH₃>SbH₃>AsH₃>PH₃
3. BiH₃>SbH₃>NH₃>AsH₃>PH₃
4. BiH₃>SbH₃>AsH₃>PH₃>NH₃

21. The total number of geometrical isomers possible for an octahedral complex of the type [ Ma²b²c²] are:
[M = transition metal; a, b, and c are monodentate ligands]
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

22.

$\overset{{({NH}_{4})}_{2} S}{\to} A \to_{0 - 5 ° C}^{N a N O_{2} / H C l} B \to_{∆}^{C_{2} H_{5} O H} C$

Product (C) is
1. Nitrobenzene
2. 1,3-Diethoxybenzenez
3. Ethoxybenzene
4. Benzene

23.

Which of the following is protein hormones?
1. Insulin
2. Oxytocin
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above

24.

Boron carbide, $B_{4} C$ is widely used for:
1. making acetylene
2. making plaster of Paris
3. as a hardest substance after diamond
4. making boric acid

25.

Chlorine shows the bleaching action in the presence of moisture due to the formation of
1. HOCl
2. HOClO
3. H₂O₂
4. O

26.

In a cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid molecule, how many single and double bonds are present?

1.	3 double bonds; 9 single bonds.
2.	6 double bonds; 6 single bonds
3.	3 double bonds; 12 single bunds
4.	Zero double bonds; 12 single bonds

27.

The amphoteric oxide among the following is -

1.	$\mathrm{CO}_2 $	2.	$\mathrm{PbO}_2 $
3.	$\mathrm{SiO}_2 $	4.	$\mathrm{SeO}_2$

28.

Elements in the same group have similar physical and chemical properties due to the same:
1. Electronic configuration
2. Valence electrons
3. Atomic size
4. Atomic mass

29.

Which one of the following species has a plane triangular shape?

1.	$\mathrm N_3^-$	2.	$\mathrm {N O}_{3}^{-}$
3.	$\mathrm {N O}_{2}^-$	4.	$\mathrm {C O}_{2}$

30.

The number of EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) molecules that are required to make an octahedral complex with a Ca²⁺ ion is/are:
1. Six
2. Three
3. One
4. Two

31. Mark the pair of species exhibiting trigonal pyramidal geometry:
1. ClF₃ and NO₃^–
2. AsF₃ and SO₃^2–
3. CIF₃ and SO₃^2–
4.SO₃^2–and NO₃^–

32.

The radius of La³⁺(Atomic number of La =57) is 1.06 Å. Which one of the following given values will be closest to the radius of Lu³⁺ (Atomic number of Lu = 71)?
1. 1.60 Å
2. 1.40 Å
3. 1.06 Å
4. 0.85 Å

33.

Assuming complete ionization, same moles of which of the following compounds will require the least amount of acidified KMnO₄ for complex oxidation?
1. $F e S O_{4}$
2. $F e S O_{3}$
3. $F e C_{2} O_{4}$
4. $F e {(N O_{2})}_{2}$

34.

Which among the following is a gas?
1. $B F_{3}$
2. $B C l_{3}$
3. $B B r_{3}$
4. $B I_{3}$

35.

D-(+)-glucose reacts with hydroxylamine and yields an oxime. The structure of the
oxime would be:-
1.
2.
3.
4.

Chemistry-Section-B

36.

The silicate anion in the mineral kinoite is a chain of three ${SiO}_{4}$ tetrahedra, that share corners with adjacent tetrahedra. The charge of the silicate anion is-
1. -4
2. -8
3. -6
4. -2

37.

Which one is explosive?
1.   ${PCl}_{5}$
2.   $Pb {({NO}_{3})}_{2}$
3.   ${NH}_{4} {NO}_{3} + Al powder$
4.   $C_{6} H_{5} {NO}_{2}$

38.

Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic?
(At. No. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)
1.   ${Ce}^{2 +}$
2.   ${Sm}^{2 +}$
3.   ${Eu}^{2 +}$
4.   ${Yb}^{2 +}$

39.

Redness of blood is because of the presence of:
(1) iron in heme pigment
(2) haemoglobin
(3) copper in heme pigment
(4) all of the above

40.

The d-electron configuration of [Ru(en)₃]Cl₂ and [Fe(H₂O)₆]Cl₂, respectively are :
1. t_2g⁶ e_g⁰ and t_2g⁴ e_g²
$2.~ t_{2 g}^{4} e_{g}^{2}~ and ~t_{2 g}^{4} e_{g}^{2}\\ 3.~ t_{2 g}^{3} e_{g}^{3} ~and~ t_{2 g}^{4} e_{g}^{2}\\ 4.~ t_{2 g}^{4} e_{g}^{2} ~and~ t_{2 g}^{3} e_{g}^{3}$

41.

Assertion (A):	On hydrolysis, PCl₃ produces a dibasic oxyacid of phosphorous.
Reason (R):	H₃PO₂ is a dibasic acid.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

42. The most acidic oxide amongst the following is
1. NO
2. $N_2O$
3. $NO_2$
4. $N_2O_5$

43. In which of the following is the order is not in accordance with the property mentioned?

1.	Li < Na < K < Rb	Atomic radius
2.	F > N > O > C	Ionisation enthalpy
3.	Si < P < S < Cl	Electronegativity
4.	F < Cl < Br < I	Electronegativity

44.

On hydrolysis of starch, we finally get
1. glucose
2. fructose
3. Maltose
4. Both 1 and 3

45.

The correct order of increasing reactivity of C-X bond towards nucleophile in the following compound is
[2010]

1. I<II<IV<III
2. II<III<I<IV
3. IV<III<I<II
4. III<II<I<IV

46.

X and Y in the given reaction are:

1. ${CH}_{3} COOH + ({CH}_{3})_{2} NH$
2. ${CH}_{3} {CONH}_{2} + {CH}_{3} OH$
3. ${CH}_{3} CHO + ({CH}_{3})_{2} NH$
4. ${CH}_{3} {COCH}_{3} + {CH}_{3} {NH}_{2}$

47.

The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of the metal M in the complex M(en)₂(C₂O₄)]Cl (where, en is ethylenediamine) is :
1. 9
2. 6
3. 7
4. 8

48.

The correct statement among the following is:

1.	When a covalent bond is formed, transfer of electrons takes place
2.	Pure H₂O does not contain any ion
3.	A bond is formed when attractive forces overcome repulsive forces
4.	HF is less polar than HBr

49.

Which of the following are peroxoacids of sulphur?

1.	$\mathrm{H_{2} SO_{5} } \text{ and } \mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{8}}$	2.	$\mathrm{H_{2} SO_{5 }} \text{ and } \mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{7}}$
3.	$\mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{7}} \text{ and } \mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{8}}$	4.	$\mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{6}} \text{ and } \mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{7}}$

50. The most basic oxide among the following is:
1. $CrO$
2. $Cr_2O_3$
3. $CrO_3$
4. $Cr_2O_4$

Biology-I-Section-A

51.

Which, among the following, are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?

1.	Pseudomonas	2.	Mycoplasma
3.	Nostoc	4.	Bacillus

52.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Griffith	P	Bacterial transformation
B	Hershey and Chase	Q	Proved DNA replication is semi-conservative
C	Meselson and Stahl	R	DNA and not protein is the genetic material
D	Watson and Crick	S	Proposed DNA replication is semi-conservative

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	R	Q	S
2.	R	P	S	Q
3.	P	R	S	Q
4.	R	P	Q	S

53. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	In cotton, coriander, and larkspur, differences in the shapes of leaves produced in air and those produced in water represent heterophyllous development due to environment.
Statement II:	In buttercup, the leaves of the juvenile plant are different in shape from those in mature plants.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

54. Isobilateral (Monocotyledonous) leaf:

A:	exhibits reticulate venation
B:	mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma
C:	mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma
D:	In grasses, certain adaxial epidermal cells along the veins modify into bulliform cells

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and D only
2. C and D only
3. B and D only
4. A and D only

55. In transcription:

1.	RNA complement formed includes the nucleotide uracil (U) in all instances where thymine (T) would have occurred in a DNA complement.
2.	The template strand of DNA is called the coding strand.
3.	RNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 5' end of the growing mRNA chain.
4.	The error rate is much lower than that in DNA replication.

56. In the mitochondrial Electron Transport System, Ubiquinone receives reducing equivalents from:
I: Complex I
II: Complex II

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

57. Pollen grains can persist in the fossil record for hundreds of millions of years because of the presence of:
1. Sporopollenin
2. Lignin
3. Cellulose
4. Suberin

58.

Match Column I with Column II

	Column I		Column II
(a)		(i)	Brassicaceae
(b)		(ii)	Liliaceae
(c)		(iii)	Fabaceae
(d)		(iv)	Solanaceae

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
2.	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)
3.	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)
4.	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)

59. Consider the given two statements:

I:	In most ecosystems, all the pyramids, of number, of energy and biomass are upright.
II:	Energy at a lower trophic level is always more than at a higher level.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

60.

Nicotine, caffeine, quinine and opium produced by plants are actually:

1.	Primary metabolites needed in reproduction
2.	Secondary metabolites needed for growth
3.	Alkaloids that are present in seeds
4.	Defenses against grazers and browsers

61.

The main function of lenticel is:

1.	Transpiration	2.	Guttation
3.	Gaseous exchange	4.	Bleeding

62.

Which one of the following growth regulators is known as the stress hormone?

1.	Abscisic acid	2.	Ethylene
3.	GA₃	4.	Indole acetic acid

63. In contrast to eukaryotic cells, the prokaryotic cells generally are:
1. smaller and multiply rapidly
2. larger and multiply rapidly
3. smaller and multiply slowly
4. larger and multiply rapidly

64.

The cell walls of diatoms are ‘indestructible’ as they are embedded with:

1.	Silica	2.	Chitin
3.	Calcium	4.	Raphides

65. Down’s syndrome:

I:	is an aneuploidy
II:	is trisomy 21
III:	always runs in a family
IV:	does not affect the life span and fertility

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only III and IV are correct
3. Only I and III are correct
4. Only II and IV are correct

66. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Mitosis is also called as equational division.
Reason (R):	The number of chromosomes in the parent cells undergoing mitosis and progeny cells is the same.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

67. In cyclic flow of electrons:

1.	Both ATP and NADPH are produced
2.	Photolysis of water produces oxygen
3.	Excited electron does not pass on to NADP⁺ but is cycled back to the PS I complex through the electron transport chain
4.	Only PS II is functional

68. The term ‘Complex III’ in the mitochondrial electron transport system refers to:

1.	Cytochrome bc₁ complex	2.	Cytochrome b₆f complex
3.	Cytochrome c oxidase	4.	Cytochrome c

69. In a eukaryotic cell which phase of the cell cycle can be regarded as the primary growth phase?
1. G₀
2. G₁
3. M
4. S

70. Which of the following would not be true regarding the structure of a typical anther in an angiosperm?
1. Lobes: 2
2. Sides: 4
3. Microsporangia: 4
4. Theca in each lobe: 1

71. Alexander von Humboldt:

1.	was German and worked in South America and gave species-area relationship
2.	was French and worked in South East Asia and gave species-area relationship
3.	was English and worked in South East Asia and gave resource partitioning concept
4.	was Spanish and worked in South America and gave character displacement concept

72. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Aspergillus niger	P	Swiss cheese
B	Streptococcus	Q	Citric acid
C	Trichoderma polysporum	R	Cyclosporin A
D	Propionibacterium shermanii	S	Clot buster

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	S	R	P
2.	P	Q	S	R
3.	R	P	Q	S
4.	S	R	P	Q

73. The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is called:

1.	mutualism	2.	commensalism
3.	competition	4.	amensalism

74.

A pea plant shows the dominant phenotype. You conduct a single gene test cross to determine the genotype of this pea plant (T = tall, t = short). All progeny of the test cross show the dominant phenotype. The genotype of the plant in question is most likely:

1.	TT.	2.	TTtt.
3.	Tt.	4.	tt.

75. In the chloroplast, ATP synthase complex is found within the:

1.	thylakoid membrane	2.	thylakoid space
3.	stroma	4.	outer membrane

76. Match the following column I with column II and select the correct option

	Column I		Column II
A.	Ladybird	(i)	Nucleopolyhedrovirus
B.	Bacillus thuringiensis	(ii)	Mosquito
C.	Baculoviruses	(iii)	Aphids
D.	Dragonflies	(iv)	Butterfly caterpillar

A B C D
1. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
2. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
3. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
4. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

77.

Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?

1.	Cockroach	2.	House fly
3.	Fire fly	4.	Grasshopper

78. The figure shows:

1. Female thallus of Marchantia
2. Male thallus of Marchantia
3. Gametophyte of Funaria
4. Sporophyte of Funaria

79. Different species of a genus

1.	Are very different from each other in their basic properties
2.	Have morphological similarities
3.	Can be placed in different families
4.	Cannot be differentiated on the basis of their morphological features

80.

Microbodies in eukaryotic cells include all the following except:

1.	Peroxisomes	2.	Glycosomes
3.	Lysosomes	4.	Glyoxysomes

81. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Measurement of biomass in terms of fresh weight is more accurate.
Reason (R):	The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

82. In case of plants, classes with a few similar characters are assigned to a higher category ideally called:

1.	Phylum	2.	Division
3.	Subphylum	4.	Infra Class

83.

A stable community in an ecosystem:

I:	should show a considerable increase in productivity every year
II:	must be either resistant or resilient to occasional man-made and natural disturbances
III:	must be resistant to invasions by alien species

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

84. Vegetables such as cabbage, broccoli, cauliflower, kale, Brussels sprouts belong to the family:

1.	Gramineae	2.	Malvaceae
3.	Cruciferae	4.	Leguminosae

85. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	In Cycas, the pinnate leaves persist for a few years.
Statement II:	In conifers, the needle-like leaves reduce the surface area helping to reduce water loss.

1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3. Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Biology-I-Section-B

86. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in an ecosystem is called standing state.
Statement II:	In an ecosystem, each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the standing crop.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

87.

Which of the following is true for nucleolus?

1. Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
2. It is a membrane-bound structure.
3. It takes part in spindle formation.
4. It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

88. Which of the following is missing in sieve tube elements when they attain maturity?

1.	Nuclei	2.	Cytoplasm
3.	P-protein	4.	Callose

89. The reactions of the Calvin cycle can take place as long as which of the following products of the light dependent reactions are available?

1.	Water and Glucose
2.	Water and ATP
3.	Oxygen and Carbon dioxide
4.	ATP and NADPH

90. Biosphere reserves and sacred groves are:

1.	in-situ methods for conservation of biodiversity
2.	ex-situ methods for conservation of biodiversity
3.	always parts of some national park
4.	solitary secluded areas where human movement is forbidden by law

91. When a cell in plants differentiates to form a tracheary element:

I:	it would gain a lot of protoplasm.
II:	it develops a very strong, elastic, lignocellulosic secondary cell walls.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

92. Identify the correct statement regarding genetic code:
1. AUG is the termination codon
2. UAG is an initiator codon
3. Genetic code is ambiguous
4. Genetic code is degenerate

93.

Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Mendel self-pollinated the F₂ plants and found that dwarf F₂plants continued to generate dwarf plants in F₃ and F₄ generations.
Reason (R):	The genotype of the dwarfs was homozygous.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains Assertion.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

94. Mycorrhizal symbiotic fungi in plants commonly belong to the Genus:
1. Glomus
2. Philaphora
3. Byssoclamys
4. Paecilomyces

95. During glycolysis, a molecule of ATP is produced:

I:	first in the conversion of glucose into glucose 6-phosphate
II:	second in the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Neither I nor II	4.	Both I and II

96.

The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During the interphase of mitosis, if the number of chromosomes at G₁ phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after the S phase?

1.	4	2.	32
3.	8	4.	16

97. All statements regarding the features of racemose and cymose inflorescence are correct except:

1.	In racemose inflorescence, the flowers are borne in an acropetal order
2.	In cymose inflorescence, the floral main axis continues to grow throughout the life
3.	In racemose inflorescence the floral main axis continues to grow
4.	In cymose inflorescence, the flowers are borne in a basipetal order

98.

An endoparasite in the human alimentary canal is expected to possess:

I:	Well-developed locomotion
II:	A means to protect itself against the digestive juices of humans
III:	A high reproductive capacity

1.	Only II	2.	Only I and II
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II and III

99. All the following will be correct for members of Chlorophyceae except:

1.	Chlorophyll a and Chlorophyll b are dominant photosynthetic pigments
2.	Pyrenoids seen in chloroplasts in most
3.	Cellulosic cell wall
4.	2 unequal and lateral flagellar insertions

100. In the given diagram showing the TS of a typical angiosperm anther, which part represents the layer with cells that may be binucleate?

1.	(i)	2.	(ii)
3.	(iii)	4.	(iv)

Biology-II-Section-A

101. In a continuous culture system:

I:	The used medium is drained out from one side while the fresh medium is added from the other.
II:	The cells are maintained in their physiologically most active log/exponential phase.
III:	A larger biomass is produced leading to higher yields of desired proteins.

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

102. Identify the correct statements:

Statement I:	Frog eye does not have closable eye lids.
Statement II:	A nictitating membrane provides protection to the eye, especially when the frog is swimming.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

103. The semilunar valves close at the beginning of

1.	atrial systole	2.	atrial diastole
3.	ventricular systole	4.	ventricular diastole

104. The human forebrain consists of all the following except:

1.	cerebrum	2.	thalamus
3.	hypothalamus	4.	cerebellum

105. The human skull is composed of two sets of bones – cranial and facial, that count to:
1. 8 bones
2. 14 bones
3. 22 bones
4. 29 bones

106.

Which of the following organic compounds is the main constituent of Lecithin?
1. Arachidonic acid
2. Phospholipid
3. Cholesterol
4. Phosphoprotein

107. The α helix and the β pleated sheets represent which level of the organisation of the structure of a protein?
1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Tertiary
4. Quaternary

108. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with:
1. X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency
2. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
3. Purine nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency
4. Omenn syndrome

109.

The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce:
1. Oestrogen only
2. progesterone
3. human chorionic gonadotropin
4. relaxin only

110. The opening in the skull of the frog through which the medulla oblongata passes out and continues into the spinal cord is called as:

1.	Foramen ovale	2.	Foramen spinosum
3.	Foramen magnum	4.	Obturator foramen

111. Adisson’s disease:

I:	is caused by excessive secretion of adrenal cortex hormones.
II:	is characterised by altered carbohydrate metabolism causing acute weakness and fatigue.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

112. Evolution by anthropogenic action:

1.	is a determinist process.
2.	only leads to evolution of species that are useful to humans.
3.	usually is faster than the natural process.
4.	is not at all related to mutations

113. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Normal expiration is a passive process.
Reason (R):	Expiration occurs due to relaxation of diaphragm and external intercostal muscles.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

114. Pineal secretes a hormone called:
1. melanin, a derivative of tyrosine.
2. melatonin, a derivative of tryptophan
3. MSH, a peptide hormone
4. MDPA, a steroid

115. The thymus:

1.	is located dorsal to the heart and aorta
2.	is very small in size at birth and gradually increases in size after puberty
3.	provides the site for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen
4.	is a primary lymphoid organ in the human body

116. Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Cytokine barriers	(I)	Mucus coating of respiratory tract
(B)	Cellular barriers	(II)	Interferons
(C)	Physiological barriers	(III)	Neutrophils and Macrophages
(D)	Physical barriers	(IV)	Tears and Saliva

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	(II)	(III)	(IV)	(I)
2.	(III)	(I)	(IV)	(II)
3.	(III)	(I)	(II)	(IV)
4.	(II)	(III)	(I)	(IV)

117.

α-1 antitrypsin is
1. an antacid
2. an enzyme
3. used to treat arthritis
4. used to treat emphysema

118. Regarding pulmonary volumes and capacities, which of the following will not hold true?
1. TLC – VC = RV
2. TLC – RV = FRC
3. IC = VC - ERV
4. ERV + RV = FRC

119.

The structure shown in the given diagram is characteristically seen in the Phylum:

1. Porifera
2. Ctenophora
3. Cnidaria
4. Molluska

120.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The male barrier contraceptives provide protection against STDs.
II:	Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are the contraceptive method used more commonly by urban women in India.
III:	The second-generation IUDs release copper and the third-generation IUDs release hormones.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

121. At the time of puberty, the ovary in a female contains:

1.	primary follicles with primary oocyte arrested at prophase I of meiosis I
2.	secondary follicles with primary oocyte arrested at prophase I of meiosis I
3.	primary follicles with primary oocyte arrested at metaphase II of meiosis II
4.	mature Graafian follicle with a completely mature ovum

122. Both heart rate and stroke volume in a human get doubled during exercise. His cardiac output will:
1. double
2. become four times
3. become eight times
4. remain the same

123. A person has a cardiac output of 6000 ml per minute. 20% of this is received by kidneys. What is the
renal plasma flow in this person?
1. 480 ml
2. 660 ml
3. 800 ml
4. 1200 ml

124. The type of epithelium shown in the given figure is not found in the lining of:

1. Blood capillaries
2. Loop of Henle
3. Fallopian tubes
4. Alveoli

125. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A):	Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification.
Reason (R):	The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

126.

What is the number of times that the human kidneys can maximally concentrate the initial filtrate?

1.	2	2.	4
3.	6	4.	8

127. Juxtamedullary nephrons:

1.	are located entirely in the renal cortex.
2.	do not form urine.
3.	have long loop of Henle running deep into the medulla.
4.	do not have an associated vasa recta.

128.

The beak of the original variety of Darwin finches was adapted for:
1. Seed-eating
2. Nectar sucking
3. Insect eating
4. Piercing hardwood on stem trunks

129. The hypothalamus in the human brain does not play a direct role in:

1.	Thermoregulation	2.	Osmoregulation
3.	Endocrine functions	4.	Gastric secretions

130. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Myasthenia gravis	An auto-immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle.
2.	Muscular dystrophy	Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to a genetic disorder.
3.	Tetany	Rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle due to high Ca²⁺ in body fluid.
4.	Gout	Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals.

131. Cyclostomes:

I:	are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.
II:	die within a few days of spawning.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

132. Co-enzymes:
a. are inorganic compounds
b. are permanently associated with the apoenzyme
c. are organic compounds
d. are transiently associated with the apoenzyme.
1. a and b are correct
2. a and d are correct
3. b and c are correct
4. c and d are correct

133. A non-medicated IUD amongst the following is:
1. Lippes loop
2. Multiload 375
3. Progestasert
4. LNG-20

134. All chordates have:
1. scales covering their skin
2. jaws
3. notochord
4. vertebral column

135. Which of the following statements is not correct?

1.	Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of oxygen to the tissue under normal physiological conditions.
2.	Oxygen gas has most potent effect on the central chemoreceptors and plays most vital role in regulation of respiration
3.	Nearly 70 percent of carbon dioxide is carried as bicarbonate in the blood.
4.	Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers about 4 ml of carbon dioxide to the alveoli.

Biology-II-Section-B

136. Nissl’s granules are seen in:
I: Cell body of the neuron
II: Dendrites

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

137. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion(A):	Insulin isolated from other cattle or pigs is not as effective as that secreted by the human body itself.
Reason (R):	Insulin isolated from other cattle or pigs will elicit an immune response in the human body

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3.	(A) is True; (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

138.

A host cell normally does not take up a foreign DNA until it has been made competent to do so. This is because:

1.	DNA is a hydrophilic molecule
2.	DNA is a very large molecule
3.	there are no receptors for DNA on the cell membrane
4.	DNA is an inert molecule

139.

Assertion(A):	The physiology of tapeworms is highly simplified.
Reason(R):	The reproductive potential of tapeworms is very high.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False and (R) is True.

140. Concanavalin A is:

1.	a primary metabolite in living organism and an alkaloid
2.	a primary metabolite in living organism and a lectin
3.	a secondary metabolite in living organism and a lectin
4.	a secondary metabolite in living organism and an alkaloid

141.

The excretory system of a frog consists of all of the following, except:

1.	a pair of kidneys	2.	a pair of urethra
3.	a single median cloaca	4.	urinary bladder

142.

To prevent eryhtroblastosis fetalis in future pregnancies:

1.	Anti-Rh Immunoglobulins must be given to Rh –ve mothers at the time of each delivery
2.	Anti-Rh Immunoglobulins must be given to new born at the time of each delivery
3.	Rh Antigens must be given to new born at the time of each delivery
4.	Anti Antigens must be given to Rh –ve mothers at the time of each delivery

143. The most common renal stones are:
1. oxalates
2. urates
3. cysteine
4. struvites

144. The contraction of external inter-costal muscles:

1.	lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis.
2.	depresses the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis.
3.	lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis.
4.	depresses the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis.

145. The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and radiating to other areas of geography (habitats) is called:
1. Genetic drift
2. Adaptive radiation
3. Founder effect
4. Gene flow

146. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	The part of the oviducts (fallopian tubes) closer to the ovary is the funnel-shaped infundibulum.
Statement II:	The last part of the oviduct, isthmus, has a narrow lumen and it joins the uterus.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

147. The cell mediated immune response:

I:	is mediated by T lymphocytes.
II:	produces more antibodies than in the humoral immune response.
III:	is characterised by memory.
IV:	is responsible for graft rejections.

1. Only I, II and III are correct
2. Only I, III and IV are correct
3. Only II, III and IV are correct
4. I, II, III and IV are correct

148. According to the MTP [Amendment] Act 2017, the gestational age till which MTP can be performed is a maximum of:
1. 12 weeks
2. 16 weeks
3. 20 weeks
4. 24 weeks

149.

Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at:
1. the neuromuscular junction
2. the transverse tubules
3. the myofibril
4. the sarcoplasmic reticulum

150. The thyroid gland:

I:	is composed of two lobes interconnected with a thin flap of connective tissue called isthmus.
II:	is composed of follicles and stromal tissues.
III:	is located in the mediastinum, ventral to aorta.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

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1.	\(H_2SO_4 \) is stronger acid than \(HCl\).
2.	\(HCl\) is oxidised by \(KMnO_4\) to \(Cl_2\).
3.	\(H_2SO_4 \) is dibasic acid.
4.	Rate is faster in presence of \(H_2SO_4 \).

1.	\(\mathrm{CO}_2 \)	2.	\(\mathrm{PbO}_2 \)
3.	\(\mathrm{SiO}_2 \)	4.	\(\mathrm{SeO}_2\)

1.	\(\mathrm N_3^-\)	2.	\(\mathrm {N O}_{3}^{-}\)
3.	\(\mathrm {N O}_{2}^-\)	4.	\(\mathrm {C O}_{2}\)

1.	\(\mathrm{H_{2} SO_{5} } \text{ and } \mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{8}}\)	2.	\(\mathrm{H_{2} SO_{5 }} \text{ and } \mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{7}}\)
3.	\(\mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{7}} \text{ and } \mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{8}}\)	4.	\(\mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{6}} \text{ and } \mathrm{H_{2} S_{2} O_{7}}\)

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